At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

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HESI PN Exit Exam 2023 Questions

Question 1 of 9

At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

Question 2 of 9

A client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is concerned about the risk of infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Keep the incision sites clean and dry.' After CABG surgery, maintaining the cleanliness and dryness of the incision sites is crucial to prevent infections. This practice reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the surgical wound, promoting healing and preventing complications. Option A, while important, does not fully encompass the preventive measures necessary to avoid infections post-surgery. Option B is significant if antibiotics are prescribed, but ensuring cleanliness directly addresses infection prevention. Option C is reactive and focuses on addressing infection after it occurs, rather than proactively preventing it.

Question 3 of 9

What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxygen transport. Hemoglobin in red blood cells binds to oxygen in the lungs and carries it to tissues throughout the body, releasing it where needed. This process is essential for cellular respiration and energy production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin's primary function is not related to immunity, blood clotting, or carbon dioxide transport. Hemoglobin's main role is to transport oxygen, ensuring adequate oxygen supply to body tissues for metabolic processes.

Question 4 of 9

Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with night blindness?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin A. Vitamin A deficiency leads to night blindness because this vitamin is crucial for the formation of rhodopsin, a photopigment in the retina. Rhodopsin is essential for vision in low-light conditions. Vitamin B12 deficiency can lead to anemia and neurological issues but is not directly related to night blindness. Vitamin C deficiency can cause scurvy, affecting connective tissues, but not night vision. Vitamin D deficiency can lead to bone disorders but is not primarily associated with night blindness.

Question 5 of 9

Which disorder is characterized by demyelination of neurons in the central nervous system?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Multiple sclerosis is the correct answer. It is an autoimmune disease that specifically targets and damages the myelin sheath surrounding neurons in the central nervous system. This demyelination disrupts the transmission of nerve signals and leads to a variety of neurological symptoms. Parkinson's disease (Choice B), Alzheimer's disease (Choice C), and Huntington's disease (Choice D) are neurodegenerative disorders that do not primarily involve demyelination of neurons in the CNS. Parkinson's disease is characterized by the loss of dopamine-producing neurons, Alzheimer's disease by the formation of plaques and tangles in the brain, and Huntington's disease by a genetic mutation affecting nerve cells.

Question 6 of 9

A client is post-operative day one following an open cholecystectomy. The nurse notices the client's drainage from the T-tube is dark green. What is the most appropriate action for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Dark green drainage from a T-tube after a cholecystectomy is bile, which is an expected finding. Bile is normally dark green in color. It is important for the nurse to recognize this as a normal post-operative occurrence and document the finding. There is no need to notify the healthcare provider immediately as this finding is an anticipated part of the client's recovery. Decreasing the suction on the T-tube or flushing it with saline is unnecessary and may not be indicated based on the color of the drainage. Therefore, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to document the dark green drainage as a normal finding.

Question 7 of 9

The home health nurse suspects elder abuse after observing fresh lacerations on the arms and legs of an older adult male client who lives with his daughter. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In cases where elder abuse is suspected, the most critical action for the nurse to take is to report the findings to the supervisor for referral to adult protective services. This step is essential to protect the client from further harm and ensure their safety. Documenting the lacerations, as suggested in choice A, is important but not as urgent as ensuring immediate intervention by reporting the abuse. Asking the daughter for information, as in choice C, may not be effective if she is the abuser. Applying dressings, as in choice D, is a lower priority compared to taking action to address the suspected abuse.

Question 8 of 9

Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.

Question 9 of 9

The PN notes that an older female client has developed a nonproductive cough and seems more confused than the previous day. Vital signs are temperature 99.8°F, pulse 94, respirations 22, and B/P 108/54. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The change in the client's condition, especially confusion and a new cough, may indicate the onset of an infection such as pneumonia, which requires immediate attention. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures prompt evaluation and intervention. Monitoring the client's temperature hourly (Choice B) could be important but not the most critical at this point. Offering the client fluids frequently (Choice C) and providing care to moisten oral mucosa (Choice D) are not the priority interventions when facing potential signs of infection and confusion in the client.

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