HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.
Question 2 of 5
Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.
Question 3 of 5
Which task could the PN safely delegate to the UAP?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a child is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). This task involves providing basic care and does not require specialized nursing skills. Choices B, C, and D involve assessments, recording client goals, and evaluating pain, respectively, which all require specialized nursing knowledge, judgment, and skills. These tasks are not within the scope of practice for a UAP.
Question 4 of 5
During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.
Question 5 of 5
The client diagnosed with HIV is taught by the nurse that the condition is transmitted through
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: HIV can be transmitted from a mother to her baby during childbirth or breastfeeding, making choice A the correct answer. Tears, human bites, and insect bites are not common modes of HIV transmission. While human bites can potentially transmit the virus, it is less common compared to mother-to-child transmission.
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