HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Test Questions
Question 1 of 9
An older male client is admitted to the mental health unit with a sudden onset of global disorientation and is continuously conversing with his mother, who died 50 years ago. The nurse reviews the multiple prescriptions the client is currently taking and assesses his urine specimen, which is cloudy, dark yellow, and has a foul odor. These findings suggest that this client is experiencing which condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, delirium. The sudden onset of global disorientation along with cloudy, dark yellow urine with a foul odor are indicative of delirium. Delirium is an acute condition characterized by a fluctuating disturbance in awareness and cognition. In this case, the symptoms are suggestive of an underlying physiological cause, such as infection or medication side effects. Choice A, psychotic episode, is less likely as the symptoms are more in line with delirium than a primary psychotic disorder. Choice B, dementia, is a chronic and progressive condition, not typically presenting with sudden onset disorientation. Choice D, depression, does not align with the acute cognitive changes and urine abnormalities described in the scenario.
Question 2 of 9
Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.
Question 3 of 9
A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106 mmHg and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stroke secondary to hemorrhage. Hypertension increases the risk of stroke due to the stress and damage it causes to blood vessels, which can lead to hemorrhage. Choice B is incorrect because acute kidney injury is more commonly associated with chronic uncontrolled hypertension, not acute elevations. Choice C is incorrect as heart block is not a direct consequence of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect as hypertension does not directly cause cataracts leading to blindness.
Question 4 of 9
A 70-year-old client is admitted to the hospital after 24 hours of acute diarrhea. To determine fluid status, which initial data is most important for the nurse to obtain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Usual and current weight. Weight changes are the most direct indicator of fluid status in a patient with acute diarrhea. Monitoring weight loss or gain can provide crucial information about fluid balance. Option B, color and amount of urine, though important for assessing renal function, is not as direct an indicator of fluid status as weight. Option C, number and frequency of stools, is relevant for assessing the severity of diarrhea but does not provide direct information on fluid status. Option D, intake and output 24 hours prior to admission, does not reflect the current fluid status and may not be accurate in a rapidly changing condition like acute diarrhea.
Question 5 of 9
A client with eczema is experiencing severe pruritus. Which PRN prescription should the nurse administer?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Topical corticosteroid. Topical corticosteroids are commonly used to manage itching in eczema by reducing inflammation and suppressing the immune response. In this case, for severe pruritus in eczema, a topical corticosteroid would be appropriate. Choice B, Topical scabicide, is used to treat scabies, not eczema. Choice C, Topical alcohol rub, is not typically used to manage pruritus in eczema. Choice D, Transdermal analgesic, is more for pain relief and not specifically targeted at managing itching associated with eczema.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse who works in the nursery is attending the vaginal delivery of a term infant. What action should the nurse complete before leaving the delivery room?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Placing ID bands on the infant and mother is crucial to ensure correct identification and prevent mix-ups. This step is essential for maintaining proper identification of the newborn and the mother, facilitating safe care delivery. Before leaving the delivery room, ensuring proper identification is a priority to prevent any errors. Obtaining the infant's vital signs may be important but does not take precedence over ensuring correct identification. Observing the infant latching onto the breast is crucial for breastfeeding initiation but can be done after proper identification. Administering a vitamin K injection is also important but should not delay the immediate identification process.
Question 7 of 9
A client with osteoporosis related to long-term corticosteroid therapy receives a prescription for calcium carbonate. Which client's serum laboratory value requires intervention by the nurse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An elevated creatinine level indicates possible renal impairment, which requires intervention. High creatinine levels are associated with decreased kidney function, and in this case, it suggests potential renal issues due to long-term corticosteroid therapy. Monitoring renal function is crucial in clients with osteoporosis on corticosteroid therapy to prevent further complications. Total calcium levels within the normal range are suitable for a client with osteoporosis receiving calcium carbonate. Phosphate and fasting glucose levels do not directly indicate renal impairment in this scenario.
Question 8 of 9
In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, if a child has a Gower sign, what behavior should the nurse expect the child to exhibit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Gower sign is a characteristic finding in Duchenne muscular dystrophy where a child uses hands to walk up the legs when standing from a sitting position due to proximal muscle weakness. This behavior is indicative of the child trying to compensate for weak hip and thigh muscles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the specific behavior associated with the Gower sign. Muscular atrophy, contractures of both hips, and an unsteady gait with foot slapping are not directly related to the Gower sign.
Question 9 of 9
When deciding whether to join a nursing strike called after collective bargaining efforts have failed, which factor is most important for the nurse to consider?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The role of nurses as client advocates is crucial when considering the impact of a strike on patient care. Nurses have a responsibility to advocate for their patients' well-being at all times. Choices A, C, and D, although important, are not the most critical factor to consider in this situation. The Nurse Practice Act of the State is essential for guiding nursing practice, standards of clinical nursing practice ensure quality care, and personal values are important; however, the primary focus during a strike should be on the role of nurses as client advocates.