An older male client arrives at the clinic complaining that his bladder always feels full. He complains of a weak urine flow, frequent dribbling after voiding, and increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. What action should the nurse implement?

Questions 51

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI CAT Exam Questions

Question 1 of 5

An older male client arrives at the clinic complaining that his bladder always feels full. He complains of a weak urine flow, frequent dribbling after voiding, and increasing nocturia with difficulty initiating his urine stream. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Advising the client to maintain a voiding diary is the appropriate action in this case. A voiding diary helps track symptoms and patterns essential for diagnosing conditions like benign prostatic hyperplasia or other urinary issues. Palpating the client's suprapubic area for distention (Choice A) may provide information about bladder fullness but does not address the need for tracking symptoms. Instructing the client in techniques for cleansing the glans penis (Choice C) is not relevant to the client's urinary complaints. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice D) may be necessary but does not directly address the client's symptoms of weak urine flow and difficulty initiating the urine stream.

Question 2 of 5

The client demonstrates an understanding of sliding scale insulin administration instructions by performing the procedure in which order?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct order for the client to perform the procedure is to first obtain the blood glucose level. This step is crucial as it helps determine the appropriate dose of insulin based on the sliding scale. Verifying the insulin prescription, drawing insulin into the syringe, and cleansing the selected site are important steps in the process but should follow after obtaining the blood glucose level. Therefore, options B, C, and D are incorrect in terms of the initial steps required for sliding scale insulin administration.

Question 3 of 5

After years of struggling with weight management, a middle-aged man is evaluated for gastroplasty. He has experienced difficulty managing his diabetes mellitus and hypertension, but he is approved for surgery. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Observing for signs of depression is crucial in this patient's plan of care as depression can impact his overall recovery and management post-surgery. Depression is common in individuals struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Monitoring for urinary incontinence (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the patient is undergoing gastroplasty for weight management, not a urinary issue. Applying sequential compression stockings (Choice B) is important for preventing deep vein thrombosis in immobile patients but is not the priority in this scenario. Providing a wide variety of meal choices (Choice C) is not the most crucial intervention at this stage, as post-gastroplasty dietary restrictions are essential for successful weight management.

Question 4 of 5

A child with heart failure (HF) is taking digitalis. Which sign indicates to the nurse that the child may be experiencing digitalis toxicity?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Vomiting is a common sign of digitalis toxicity and should be closely monitored. While tachycardia is a common sign of heart failure, it is not typically associated with digitalis toxicity (Choice A). Dyspnea (Choice B) and muscle cramps (Choice D) are not specific signs of digitalis toxicity and can be present in other conditions. Therefore, the presence of vomiting should raise concerns about digitalis toxicity in the child with heart failure.

Question 5 of 5

A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.

Access More Questions!

HESI LPN Basic


$89/ 30 days

HESI LPN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions