Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In this situation, the most appropriate intervention is to direct the client to a new activity. This approach can help redirect the client's attention, distract her from the distressing request, and engage her in a more positive interaction. Choice A could exacerbate the client's distress by attempting to make the impossible call, and reminding the client about her son's passing (Choice B) may increase her emotional distress. Escorting the client to a private area (Choice C) does not address the underlying issue and may not effectively manage the situation.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and inability to sit still are signs of akathisia, an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications. The nurse should first assess the client for signs of akathisia by observing their movements and behavior. Assessing for akathisia is crucial to differentiate it from other conditions and to intervene appropriately. Instructing the client to relax or engage in physical activity may not address the underlying issue of akathisia. Administering lorazepam should not be the first action as it may mask the symptoms of akathisia temporarily without addressing the root cause.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is (C) projecting her feelings onto the nurse. The mother's behavior suggests that she is attributing her own actions or feelings to the nurse, which is a form of projection. Option (A) regressing to an earlier behavior pattern is not the best fit in this context. Option (B) sublimating her anger is not applicable based on the given scenario. Option (D) suppressing her fear cannot be inferred from the provided information.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Decreased thyroid stimulating hormone level. Hyperthyroidism causes an increased level of serum thyroid hormones (T3 and T4), which inhibit the release of TSH. In this case, a decreased TSH level can indicate hyperthyroidism, which can present with manic behavior. Elevated liver function profile (B) is not directly related to the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Increased white blood cell count (C) typically indicates an infection or inflammation, not directly related to the manic phase. Decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels (D) may suggest anemia but are not as crucial in the context of a manic phase of bipolar disorder.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. PET scans are primarily used to detect and observe the metabolic activity in various parts of the brain. This helps in diagnosing conditions related to brain function, such as tumors, brain disorders, and overall brain activity. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because PET scans focus on metabolic activity and functions in the brain rather than solely indicating the presence of tumors, outlining brain structures, or showing biochemical levels of neurotransmitters.