HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with iron supplements, which information should the nurse include in the discharge?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to wait 2 hours after meals before taking the iron tablet. This is important to ensure better absorption and efficacy of the iron supplement. Taking the tablet with a daily multivitamin (Choice A) may interfere with iron absorption due to interactions with other minerals. Crushing the tablet and mixing it with pudding (Choice B) can alter the effectiveness of the medication. While bedtime (Choice C) may be convenient, waiting after meals is crucial for optimal iron absorption.
Question 2 of 9
The healthcare provider has prescribed an influenza vaccine for a 74-year-old client before discharge. Which client condition would prompt the practical nurse to consult with the charge nurse rather than administer the vaccine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of an egg allergy. The influenza vaccine may contain a small amount of egg protein. According to the CDC, individuals with a severe allergy to any component of the vaccine, including egg protein, should not receive the influenza vaccine. Therefore, if the client has a history of an allergy to eggs, the practical nurse should not administer the vaccine and consult with the charge nurse for further guidance, as it is a contraindication. The other conditions listed do not require consultation before administering the influenza vaccine.
Question 3 of 9
A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed valproate. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 9
Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.
Question 5 of 9
A client with hypertension is prescribed metoprolol. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 6 of 9
In the emergency department, a child is admitted for accidental ingestion of a poison. The practical nurse (PN) should know that inducing vomiting is recommended for which child?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 7 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed tofacitinib. What should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tofacitinib is an immunosuppressive medication used in rheumatoid arthritis. Patients taking tofacitinib should avoid live vaccines because the medication can weaken the immune system, making live vaccines potentially harmful. It is essential to educate the client on this to prevent any complications related to live vaccines during their treatment.
Question 8 of 9
The practical nurse administers lactulose to a client. Which client outcome would indicate a therapeutic response?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Lactulose is a type of laxative that works by preventing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, leading to increased water absorption in the stool and softening of the stool. The therapeutic response to lactulose is indicated by the passage of two to three soft stools per day, showing that the medication is effectively promoting bowel movements.
Question 9 of 9
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed linagliptin, it is crucial to educate them to report any signs of pancreatitis to their healthcare provider. Linagliptin can lead to pancreatitis, making it essential for clients to be vigilant for symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Timely reporting of these symptoms can aid in early intervention and management of pancreatitis.