An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

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Question 1 of 5

An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.

Question 2 of 5

While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the LPN/LVN implement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acknowledging that the client's wife is supporting the arm correctly is the appropriate nursing action in this scenario. By doing so, the nurse reinforces correct technique and promotes confidence. Choice B is incorrect as the issue is not about maintaining warmth. Choice C is incorrect as gripping directly under the joint is not necessary in this case. Choice D is incorrect as instructing to grip directly over the joint may not provide the best support for passive range-of-motion exercises.

Question 3 of 5

A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

Question 4 of 5

A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the LPN/LVN include in this client's teaching plan?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client who had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip is to 'Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.' This technique helps maintain proper hip alignment and prevents dislocation during the postoperative recovery period. Choice A is incorrect because bending at the waist to reach items on the floor can strain the hip joint and is not recommended following hip surgery. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker alone without assistance can increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in the immediate postoperative period. Choice D is incorrect because pain medication should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not specifically timed after physical therapy sessions.

Question 5 of 5

An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.

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