HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
An adult client with a broken femur is transferred to the medical-surgical unit to await surgical internal fixation after the application of an external traction device to stabilize the leg. An hour after an opioid analgesic was administered, the client reports muscle spasms and pain at the fracture site. While waiting for the client to be transported to surgery, which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administer a PRN dose of a muscle relaxant. Muscle spasms and pain might be relieved by muscle relaxants, which are appropriate before surgery. Choice A is incorrect because the client is experiencing muscle spasms, not signs of deep vein thrombosis. Choice C is not the most immediate action needed in this situation. Choice D is incorrect because reducing the weight on the traction device would not directly address the muscle spasms and pain reported by the client.
Question 2 of 9
When assessing a client's blood pressure and determining an auscultatory gap, which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When an auscultatory gap is present, comparing the palpated systolic blood pressure with the auscultated pressure is crucial. This helps to accurately measure blood pressure and detect any discrepancies caused by the gap. Assessing for lightheadedness upon standing (choice B) is unrelated to addressing an auscultatory gap. Checking the consistency between automated and manual blood pressure readings (choice C) is important for validation but not specifically for managing an auscultatory gap. Observing blood pressure changes between lying and sitting positions (choice D) is relevant for orthostatic hypotension assessment but not for dealing with an auscultatory gap.
Question 3 of 9
An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is assessing an infant with pyloric stenosis. Which pathophysiological mechanism is the most likely consequence of this infant's clinical picture?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pyloric stenosis often leads to metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric acid from vomiting. Metabolic acidosis would not be expected in pyloric stenosis as there is no excessive acid accumulation. Respiratory alkalosis and respiratory acidosis are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis, making them incorrect choices.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is assessing an older adult with type 2 diabetes. Which assessment finding indicates that the client understands long-term control of diabetes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: An A1C level of 6.5% indicates good long-term control of diabetes as it reflects the average blood sugar levels over the past 2-3 months. Monitoring fasting blood sugar provides immediate information about the current blood sugar level, while the absence of urine ketones indicates short-term control. Although the absence of diabetic ketoacidosis is positive, it doesn't specifically reflect long-term control like the A1C level does.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client with a tracheostomy. Which action should the nurse perform when suctioning the tracheostomy tube?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When suctioning a tracheostomy tube, it is essential to insert the suction catheter into the trachea and apply intermittent suction with removal of the catheter. This technique helps prevent damage to the trachea and reduces discomfort for the client. Choice A is incorrect because increasing wall suction with the removal of the suction catheter can cause trauma to the tracheal mucosa. Choice B is incorrect because instilling saline into the tracheostomy tube before suctioning is not recommended as it can lead to complications. Choice C is incorrect as oropharyngeal suctioning should be done before tracheal suctioning to prevent the risk of aspiration.
Question 7 of 9
When washing soiled hands, what should the nurse do after wetting the hands and applying soap?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: After wetting the hands and applying soap, the nurse should rub hands palm to palm. Rubbing hands palm to palm helps create friction and effectively clean the hands by spreading the soap and reaching all areas. Interlacing the fingers, drying hands with a paper towel, and turning off the water faucet should come after rubbing hands palm to palm in the handwashing process. Interlacing the fingers can be done to ensure the backs of the hands are cleaned, drying hands with a paper towel is the final step to ensure hands are dry, and turning off the water faucet helps save water.
Question 8 of 9
A client who will be going to surgery states no known allergies to any medications. What is the most important nursing action for the nurse to implement next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important action to take in this situation is to record 'no known drug allergies' on the preoperative checklist. This ensures that all healthcare staff involved in the surgery are aware of the client's stated lack of drug allergies, helping to prevent any potential adverse reactions. Assessing the client's knowledge of an allergic response (Choice A) may be valuable but is not the most crucial action at this point. Flagging 'no known drug allergies' on the front of the chart (Choice C) is less practical and visible compared to documenting it on the preoperative checklist. Assessing the client's allergies to non-drug substances (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario where the focus is on medications due to the upcoming surgery.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse has explained safety precautions and infant care to a primigravida mother and observes the mother as she gives care to her newborn during the first two days of rooming-in. Which action indicates the mother understands the instruction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Positioning the infant supine in the crib to sleep is the correct action that indicates the mother understands the instruction. This position is recommended to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Choice A is incorrect as it is not a routine or recommended practice to aspirate the newborn's nares using a syringe without a specific medical indication. Choice B is incorrect because applying a dressing to the cord after the newborn's bath is not a standard care practice. Choice C is incorrect because breastfeeding every hour during the night is excessive and not a recommended feeding schedule for a newborn.