HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
An adolescent male client is admitted to the hospital. Based on Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, which nursing intervention best assists this adolescent's adjustment to his hospital stay?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Inviting the adolescent to participate in group activities aligns with Erikson's theory of psychosocial development, specifically the stage of developing social relationships. By engaging in group activities, the adolescent can interact with peers, fostering social skills and aiding in adjustment to the hospital environment. Choice B is incorrect as excessive reliance on phone calls to parents may hinder the adolescent's autonomy and independence, which are crucial aspects of Erikson's theory for this age group. Choice C, providing access to video games, while potentially offering entertainment, does not directly address the need for social interaction and relationship-building. Choice D, encouraging the adolescent to learn his way around the hospital, is important for familiarity but may not directly address the need for social interaction and adjustment in the hospital setting.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assigned to care for four surgical clients. After receiving report, which client should the nurse see first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client with continuous bladder irrigation post-bladder surgery is at risk for complications like infection or bleeding. This client requires immediate attention to assess for any signs of complications such as urinary retention, hemorrhage, or infection. Choices A, C, and D have less urgent needs compared to a client with continuous bladder irrigation, which requires priority assessment.
Question 3 of 5
A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke's syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client's care?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Confusion is a key symptom of Wernicke's syndrome, which is due to thiamine deficiency. Wernicke's syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms known as the classic triad, which includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Right lower abdominal pain, depression, and peripheral neuropathy are not typically associated with Wernicke's syndrome, making them incorrect choices for this question.
Question 4 of 5
When administering diazepam, a benzodiazepine, 10 mg IV push PRN for a client with alcohol withdrawal symptoms, which actions should the nurse implement? (Select all that apply)
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When administering diazepam for a client with alcohol withdrawal symptoms, it is crucial to perform ongoing assessment of respiratory status. Diazepam can lead to respiratory depression, emphasizing the need for continuous monitoring to detect any signs of respiratory distress early. Protecting the medication from light exposure is a general guideline for some drugs but is not a specific concern for diazepam. Observing for bruising or bleeding is not directly associated with the administration of diazepam for alcohol withdrawal symptoms, making choices A and C incorrect.
Question 5 of 5
An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.