HESI LPN
Pediatrics HESI 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
An 18-month-old was brought to the emergency department by her mother, who states, 'I think she broke her arm.' The child is sent for a radiograph to confirm the fracture. Additional assessment of the child leads the nurse to suspect possible child abuse. Which type of fracture would the radiograph most likely reveal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A spiral fracture is a type of fracture often associated with twisting injuries and can raise suspicion of child abuse. This type of fracture is caused by a twisting force applied to a bone. Plastic deformity is not typically associated with fractures but refers to the ability of a material to change shape and retain that shape. A buckle fracture, also known as a torus fracture, is an incomplete break in a bone commonly seen in children. A greenstick fracture is an incomplete fracture where the bone is bent and partially broken, more commonly seen in children due to their bone flexibility.
Question 2 of 5
After a discussion with the healthcare provider, the parents of an infant with patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) ask the nurse to explain once again what PDA is. How should the nurse respond?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) is an abnormal connection between the pulmonary artery and the aorta. In a fetus, the ductus arteriosus is a normal connection between these two vessels, allowing blood to bypass the lungs. However, it should close shortly after birth. When it remains open (patent), it leads to PDA. Choices A, B, and C do not accurately describe PDA. Choice A describes an enlarged aorta, choice B describes a ventricular septal defect, and choice C describes pulmonary stenosis, which are different cardiac conditions.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse is inspecting the skin of a child with atopic dermatitis. What would the nurse expect to observe?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In atopic dermatitis, the characteristic presentation includes a dry, red, scaly rash with lichenification. This appearance is due to chronic inflammation and scratching. Choice A is incorrect as erythematous papulovesicular rash is more indicative of conditions like contact dermatitis. Choice C is incorrect as pustular vesicles with honey-colored exudates are seen in impetigo. Choice D is incorrect as hypopigmented oval scaly lesions are more characteristic of tinea versicolor.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is caring for a child who has been admitted for a sickle cell crisis. What would the nurse do first to provide adequate pain management?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Initiating pain assessment with a standardized pain scale is crucial in effectively managing pain during a sickle cell crisis. This initial step helps the nurse understand the severity of the pain, which guides subsequent interventions. Administering medications, such as NSAIDs or meperidine, should only be done after a thorough pain assessment to ensure appropriate and individualized treatment. Using guided imagery and therapeutic touch may be beneficial as adjunct interventions, but they should not replace the essential first step of assessing the pain level accurately.
Question 5 of 5
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory report of a child with tetralogy of Fallot that indicates an elevated RBC count. What does the nurse identify as the cause of the polycythemia?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tissue oxygen needs. Polycythemia occurs in response to chronic hypoxia, leading the body to increase red blood cell production to enhance oxygen delivery. In tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect that results in reduced oxygen levels in the blood, the body compensates by producing more red blood cells. Choice A is incorrect as low tissue oxygen needs would not trigger polycythemia. Choice C, diminished iron levels, is not the cause of polycythemia in this case. Choice D, hypertrophic cardiac muscle, is unrelated to the pathophysiology of polycythemia in tetralogy of Fallot.