HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse's immediate intervention? The client who is...
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
Question 2 of 9
The wife is observed shaving her husband's beard with a safety razor. What should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this situation, the nurse should encourage the wife to continue shaving her husband. The rationale behind this is that the wife is already performing the task, so abrupt interference may lead to potential harm or emotional distress. It is crucial for the nurse to carefully observe the situation and assess for any safety concerns. While teaching proper techniques (Choice B) is important, it can be addressed later in a non-critical manner to prevent skin irritation and injury. Advising to shave against the hair growth (Choice A) may cause skin irritation and cuts. Although demonstrating the correct procedure (Choice D) may be helpful, it is essential to consider the current dynamics and respect the wife's autonomy in caring for her husband.
Question 3 of 9
A client with asthma is prescribed an albuterol inhaler. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for the nurse to provide is to shake the inhaler before each use. Shaking the inhaler ensures proper mixing of the medication before administration, which is crucial for its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because albuterol inhalers are often used as a preventive measure, not just during asthma attacks. Choice B is a good practice to prevent oral fungal infections associated with inhaled corticosteroids, not typically with albuterol. Choice D is important for proper inhaler technique, but the primary step before inhaling is shaking the inhaler to ensure the medication is well mixed.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gradual onset of dyspnea.' While pulmonary embolism can present with various symptoms, the most common include sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain (often pleuritic in nature), tachypnea, and tachycardia. Bilateral leg swelling is more commonly associated with conditions like deep vein thrombosis, not pulmonary embolism. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation may be seen in conditions like pneumothorax, not typically in pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the gradual onset of dyspnea is the most indicative symptom of pulmonary embolism in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
A client with a history of chronic back pain is prescribed oxycodone for pain management. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Report any signs of respiratory depression immediately.' Respiratory depression is a severe side effect of opioids like oxycodone and can be life-threatening. It is crucial for the nurse to instruct the client to report any signs such as slow or shallow breathing, difficulty breathing, or confusion. Choice A is incorrect as taking oxycodone with or without food does not significantly affect its efficacy. Choice B is incorrect because avoiding driving is important due to the potential impairment caused by oxycodone, but reporting respiratory depression is more critical. Choice C is incorrect as increasing physical activity may not always be suitable for individuals with chronic back pain and is not directly related to preventing respiratory depression.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from surgery with a urinary catheter in place. What is the most important action to prevent catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the catheter bag is always below bladder level. This positioning helps prevent backflow of urine, reducing the risk of CAUTIs. Choice A, irrigating the catheter daily, is not recommended as it can introduce pathogens into the bladder. Changing the catheter too frequently (Choice C) can increase the risk of introducing pathogens. Administering prophylactic antibiotics (Choice D) is not the primary intervention for preventing CAUTIs and can lead to antibiotic resistance.
Question 7 of 9
Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.
Question 8 of 9
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote airway clearance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most appropriate intervention to promote airway clearance in a client with pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to cough up and clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators (Choice A) may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy (Choice C) can be beneficial in certain cases but may not be the initial intervention for promoting airway clearance. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice D) can help improve oxygenation but does not specifically target airway clearance in pneumonia.
Question 9 of 9
A client with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain before administering this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heart rate. Before administering digoxin to a client with a history of congestive heart failure, the nurse must assess the client's heart rate. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the heart rate is crucial to prevent potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are important assessments but are not as directly influenced by digoxin as heart rate is in this scenario. Blood pressure can be affected by various factors, including dehydration or other medications. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation are more related to respiratory function and gas exchange, which are not the primary concerns when administering digoxin to a client with heart failure.