HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse's immediate intervention? The client who is...
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.
Question 2 of 9
In a community health setting, which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Substance abuse, particularly using shared inhalation equipment like needles and pipes for drug inhalation, significantly increases the risk of contracting HIV. Choice A, the 17-year-old with multiple sexual partners, poses a risk of HIV transmission through sexual contact, but it is lower compared to the direct risk associated with sharing drug paraphernalia. Choice B, the 34-year-old homosexual in a monogamous relationship, is at lower risk since being in a monogamous relationship reduces exposure to HIV. Choice D, the 45-year-old who received blood transfusions, is also at lower risk as blood transfusions are now screened for HIV, decreasing the likelihood of transmission through this route.
Question 3 of 9
The healthcare provider is preparing to administer a 1.2mL injection to a 4-year-old. Which is the best site to administer an IM injection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Vastus Lateralis. The vastus lateralis site is recommended for IM injections in small children due to its large muscle mass, making it suitable for injections in pediatric patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. The radial artery is not a site for IM injections; it is a site for arterial puncture. The dorsogluteal site is not recommended for children due to potential risks, such as injury to the sciatic nerve. The rectus femoris is not typically used for IM injections in children, as other sites like the vastus lateralis are more commonly preferred.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which clinical sign is most indicative of DVT?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Redness and warmth over the affected area are classic signs of inflammation, which commonly occur in deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to the obstruction of blood flow. These symptoms result from the body's inflammatory response to the blood clot. Choices B, C, and D are less indicative of DVT. Decreased peripheral pulses may occur in arterial insufficiency rather than DVT. Cyanosis of the toes indicates decreased oxygenation and is more characteristic of arterial issues. Muscle cramps in the calf are nonspecific and can be caused by various conditions, not solely DVT.
Question 5 of 9
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.
Question 6 of 9
A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication list during a routine visit. Which action is most important to ensure medication safety?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A comprehensive review of allergies, medication purposes, and potential interactions is crucial for ensuring medication safety. Asking about allergies helps prevent adverse reactions, reviewing medication purposes ensures the correct use of each drug, and checking for potential drug interactions reduces the risk of harmful effects when medications interact. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer because all three actions are essential steps to enhance medication safety. Options A, B, and C individually play vital roles in promoting medication safety, making option D the most appropriate choice.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a diagnosis of pneumonia is experiencing difficulty expectorating thick secretions. What intervention should the nurse implement to assist the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the appropriate intervention to assist the client with pneumonia who is having difficulty expectorating thick secretions. Adequate hydration helps to thin the secretions, making them easier to cough up. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important for treating the infection itself but does not directly address the thick secretions. Chest physiotherapy (Choice C) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the initial intervention for thick secretions. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but does not directly address the problem of thick secretions.
Question 8 of 9
A client who has just been diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is being discharged home. Which instruction is most important for the nurse to provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Take all prescribed medications as directed.' This instruction is the most important because adherence to the prescribed medication regimen is crucial in treating tuberculosis effectively and preventing the development of drug-resistant TB. While choice A is important for infection control, ensuring treatment adherence through proper medication intake takes precedence. Choice C is also essential for monitoring progress but is not as critical as ensuring medication compliance. Choice D is relevant for preventing transmission but is not as crucial as ensuring proper treatment by taking medications as directed.
Question 9 of 9
A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.