HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.
Question 2 of 9
The PN notes that an older female client has developed a nonproductive cough and seems more confused than the previous day. Vital signs are temperature 99.8°F, pulse 94, respirations 22, and B/P 108/54. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The change in the client's condition, especially confusion and a new cough, may indicate the onset of an infection such as pneumonia, which requires immediate attention. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures prompt evaluation and intervention. Monitoring the client's temperature hourly (Choice B) could be important but not the most critical at this point. Offering the client fluids frequently (Choice C) and providing care to moisten oral mucosa (Choice D) are not the priority interventions when facing potential signs of infection and confusion in the client.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is MOST LIKELY to increase the risk of a medication error?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Errors in the calculation of medication dosages are a significant risk factor for medication errors. When dosage calculations are incorrect, it can lead to administering the wrong amount of medication, posing serious harm to the patient. Avoiding abbreviations for medications, barcoding medication orders, and utilizing unit dose dispensers are all strategies aimed at reducing medication errors by enhancing accuracy and safety. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they are practices that help decrease, rather than increase, the risk of medication errors.
Question 4 of 9
What information should the PN collect during the admission assessment of a terminally ill client to an acute care facility?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Correct Answer: B. Understanding the client's wishes regarding organ donation is crucial as it aligns with end-of-life care preferences and ensures that the client's decisions are respected. While obtaining the name of a funeral home (Choice A) may be necessary, it is not typically part of the initial admission assessment. Contact information for the client's next of kin (Choice C) is important for communication but may not be directly related to the client's immediate end-of-life wishes. Health care proxy information (Choice D) is vital for decision-making if the client becomes incapacitated but may not be the primary focus during the initial admission assessment.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is performing a psychosocial assessment on an adolescent aged 14. Which emotional response is typical during early adolescence?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Moodiness is a typical emotional response during early adolescence. Hormonal changes and developmental challenges contribute to this behavior. While anger and combativeness can also be present during adolescence, they are not as consistently typical as moodiness. Cooperativeness, on the other hand, is a trait more commonly associated with later stages of development and maturity, rather than early adolescence.
Question 6 of 9
A female Native American client who is receiving chemotherapy places a native artifact, an Indian medicine wheel, in her hospital room. The HCP removes the medicine wheel and tells the client, 'This type of thing does not belong in the hospital.' Which intervention should the PN implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Acting as the client's advocate is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. Removing a culturally significant artifact without considering the client's beliefs and emotional needs can be distressing. By advocating for the client, the PN can ensure that the client's cultural practices are respected, which is crucial for her emotional and spiritual well-being during treatment. Choice A is incorrect because while chemotherapy adherence is important, it is not the most immediate concern in this scenario. The client's cultural needs and well-being take precedence. Choice C is incorrect because consulting with a Native American healer might not be necessary at this point and could delay addressing the immediate issue of advocating for the client's rights. Choice D is incorrect because simply reporting the client's feelings of culture shock to the HCP does not actively address the situation or advocate for the client's rights and cultural needs.
Question 7 of 9
The PN determines that a client with cirrhosis is experiencing peripheral neuropathy. What action should the PN take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Protecting the client's feet from injury is the most appropriate action for a client with cirrhosis experiencing peripheral neuropathy. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to a loss of sensation, making the client prone to unnoticed injuries. Applying a heating pad (Choice B) is contraindicated as it may cause burns or further damage to the affected area. Keeping the client's feet elevated (Choice C) is not directly related to managing peripheral neuropathy and may not provide significant benefit. Assessing the feet and legs for jaundice (Choice D) is important for monitoring liver function in clients with cirrhosis, but in this case, the priority is to prevent injury to the feet due to decreased sensation.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.
Question 9 of 9
When administering an analgesic to a client with low back pain, which intervention should the practical nurse implement to promote the effectiveness of the medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Massaging the lower back and positioning the client in proper alignment can help relieve muscle tension and enhance the effectiveness of analgesics by providing additional comfort and promoting better pain management. This intervention directly addresses the site of pain and can improve the medication's efficacy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they may have benefits in other situations, they are not directly related to promoting the effectiveness of analgesics in clients with low back pain. Encouraging ambulation and deep breathing, assisting with range of motion exercises, and offering water and high-fiber foods are important for overall patient care but are not specific to enhancing analgesic effectiveness in this context.