HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse reviews the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.4 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the laboratory value?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Tall peaked T waves.' Tall peaked T waves are characteristic ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia. In hyperkalemia, the elevated potassium levels affect the myocardium, leading to changes in the ECG. ST depression (Choice A) is more commonly associated with myocardial ischemia or infarction. Inverted T wave (Choice B) is seen in conditions like myocardial ischemia or CNS events. Prominent U wave (Choice C) is typically associated with hypokalemia or certain medications. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse would expect to note tall peaked T waves on the electrocardiogram due to the elevated potassium level.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.
Question 3 of 5
You are caring for a patient with multiple trauma. Of all of these injuries and conditions, which is the most serious?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A deviated trachea is the most serious condition among the choices provided. It can indicate a tension pneumothorax, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise. Choice B, a gross deformity of a lower extremity, while significant, is not as immediately life-threatening as a deviated trachea. Choice C, hematuria, may indicate kidney injury but is not as acutely life-threatening as a deviated trachea. Choice D, decreased bowel sounds, could indicate abdominal issues, but it is not as urgent or immediately life-threatening as a deviated trachea.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.
Question 5 of 5
Which type of practice is most similar to research-based practice?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Evidence-based practice. Evidence-based practice relies on research to guide clinical decisions, mirroring the approach of research-based practice. Choice A, Best practices, refers to established methods or techniques that are widely accepted as superior. Choice C, Benchmark practices, typically involves setting standards or goals for performance comparison. Choice D, Standard-based practice, usually pertains to adhering to established norms or guidelines.