Questions 9

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

Fundamentals HESI Questions

Question 1 of 5

A nurse on the IV team is conducting an in-service education program about the complications of IV therapy. Which of the following statements by an attendee indicates an understanding of the manifestations of infiltration? (Select all that apply.)

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is: 'The temperature around the IV site is cooler.' Cooler temperature around the site is indicative of infiltration, where IV fluid leaks into the surrounding tissue, causing tissue swelling. The other options are incorrect: B) An increase in infusion rate is not a sign of infiltration; instead, it could indicate an issue with the infusion pump or the IV catheter. C) Redness around the IV site is more indicative of infection rather than infiltration. D) A damp IV dressing is more suggestive of a leak in the IV system, not infiltration.

Question 2 of 5

A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypernatremia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to infuse hypotonic IV fluids. In hypernatremia, there is an elevated sodium concentration in the blood, and diluting it with hypotonic fluids helps to lower the sodium levels. Implementing a fluid restriction or increasing sodium intake would worsen hypernatremia by further concentrating sodium in the body. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used for treating hyperkalemia, not hypernatremia.

Question 3 of 5

A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.

Question 4 of 5

A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is resistant to learning self-injection of insulin. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Asking the client what can be done to help overcome the fear of self-injections demonstrates empathy, understanding, and a willingness to support the client in addressing their barriers. This approach facilitates open communication, acknowledges the client's feelings, and involves them in the decision-making process. Choices B and C are authoritarian and may increase resistance in the client by being directive and not considering the client's perspective. Choice D, while positive, does not directly address the client's fear and resistance to self-injections, missing the opportunity to explore the underlying issues.

Question 5 of 5

A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.

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