HESI LPN
HESI Fundamental Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is preparing to transfer a client who is unable to walk from bed to a wheelchair. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Placing the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed is the correct technique for transferring a client who is unable to walk from bed to a wheelchair. This positioning facilitates a safer and easier transfer by providing more space for maneuvering and reducing the distance the client needs to be moved. Positioning the wheelchair parallel to the bed (Choice B) may make the transfer more challenging due to limited space and a longer distance to move the client. Placing the wheelchair in front of the bed (Choice C) may not provide an optimal angle for the transfer. Having the client stand and pivot into the wheelchair (Choice D) is not appropriate for a client who is unable to walk and could increase the risk of falls or injuries during the transfer.
Question 2 of 9
At a mobile screening clinic, a nurse is assessing a client who reports a history of a heart murmur due to aortic stenosis. To auscultate the aortic valve, where should the nurse place the stethoscope?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct location to auscultate the aortic valve is the second intercostal space to the right of the sternum. This area corresponds to the aortic valve area where aortic valve sounds are best heard. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect for auscultating the aortic valve. The fifth intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the mitral valve is best heard, the third intercostal space to the left of the sternum is where the pulmonic valve is best heard, and the fourth intercostal space at the midclavicular line is where the tricuspid valve is best auscultated.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. It can be a sign of an air leak in the lung or surrounding tissues. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected in a functioning chest tube system as it indicates proper suction. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing that the system is functioning correctly, allowing air to escape but not re-enter. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for chest tube output and does not require immediate intervention unless there are other concerning signs such as rapid increase or a sudden change in color or consistency.
Question 4 of 9
In planning care for a client with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention, the nurse can anticipate that the client will:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Wounds healing by secondary intention involve the gradual filling of the wound with granulation tissue, leading to a higher risk of infection due to prolonged exposure. This makes choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because wounds healing by secondary intention take longer to heal and often result in more pain compared to wounds healing by primary intention. Choice D is also incorrect as wounds healing by secondary intention usually require more frequent dressing changes to prevent infection and promote healing.
Question 5 of 9
A patient has damage to the cerebellum. Which disorder is most important for the nurse to assess?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When the cerebellum is damaged, it leads to impaired balance. The cerebellum plays a crucial role in coordinating movements and maintaining balance. Therefore, assessing the patient's balance is essential in determining the extent of cerebellar damage. Options B, C, and D are incorrect because hemiplegia refers to paralysis of one side of the body, muscle sprain is a soft tissue injury, and lower extremity paralysis involves loss of function in the lower limbs. These conditions are not directly associated with damage to the cerebellum.
Question 6 of 9
During an admission assessment, a nurse is documenting a client's medication. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During an admission assessment, compiling a list of the client's current medications is crucial for accurate documentation and planning. This information helps prevent medication errors, identify potential interactions, and ensure continuity of care. While counseling the client on medication adherence (Choice A) is important, it is not the primary action when documenting medications. Assessing the client for medication reactions (Choice B) is relevant for monitoring side effects but not the immediate focus during documentation. Evaluating the client's understanding of medications (Choice D) is essential for education but does not address the immediate need for compiling a list of current medications.
Question 7 of 9
A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge instructions. Which statement indicates the client understands the teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.' Using a soft-bristled toothbrush is crucial as it helps prevent bleeding gums, which is a potential side effect of warfarin therapy. Option A about taking warfarin at the same time every day is a good practice but does not directly relate to preventing side effects. Option B suggesting an increase in green leafy vegetables can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects due to their vitamin K content. Option D advising to avoid alcohol is generally recommended but is not directly related to the specific side effects of warfarin.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture removal kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After applying sterile gloves, the nurse should proceed to remove the sutures using sterile technique. This step ensures the safe and effective removal of sutures without introducing infection. Choice A, cleaning sutures along the incision site, would not be the next step as the primary focus is on suture removal. Inspecting the wound for signs of infection (Choice C) is important but typically follows suture removal. Documenting the removal of sutures (Choice D) is essential but usually occurs after the procedure is completed.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the LPN/LVN take to ensure proper administration?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To ensure proper administration through a nasogastric tube, the LPN/LVN should flush the tube with 30 ml of water before and after medication administration. This action helps ensure the tube is patent, prevents clogging, and helps deliver the medication effectively. Checking the placement of the tube by auscultation (Choice A) is essential but does not directly relate to ensuring proper administration. Administering the medication with food (Choice C) may not always be appropriate for all medications and may not necessarily prevent nausea. Diluting the medication with normal saline (Choice D) is not a standard practice for all medications administered via an NG tube and may alter the medication's effectiveness.