Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to participate in group activities. Group activities can help improve social interaction and potentially reduce feelings of isolation in depressed clients. Choice A, engaging the client in non-threatening conversations, may be helpful but may not address the underlying need for social interaction that group activities can provide. Scheduling a daily conference with the social worker (Choice B) may not directly address the client's need for social engagement. Encouraging the client's family to visit more often (Choice C) is important for support but may not provide the same level of social interaction as group activities.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased self-understanding. According to Erikson's psychosocial development theory, middle adulthood is characterized by generativity, self-reflection, understanding, and acceptance. Middle-aged adults focus on guiding the next generation and finding meaning in their lives. Choices A and C are incorrect because loss of independence and isolation from society are maladaptive behaviors in middle adulthood. While developing and maintaining intimate relationships is important throughout life, the initial development of intimate relationships typically occurs during young adulthood, not middle adulthood.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The client's disruptive and potentially harmful behavior, including tossing chairs and claiming authority, indicates a risk for other-directed violence. This behavior poses a threat to the safety of the client and others. While the client may have excess energy, the primary concern is the potential for violence, not just a lack of diversional activities (Choice A). The client's behavior is not solely due to hyperactivity leading to activity intolerance (Choice C) or grandiosity affecting personal identity (Choice D), making these options less appropriate in this context.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Encouraging slow, deep breathing is the priority intervention during a panic attack as it can help reduce the physiological symptoms and assist the client in regaining control. This technique can help decrease hyperventilation and promote relaxation. Choice B, asking the client to describe sensations, may be beneficial after the panic attack has subsided to gain insight into triggers or manifestations. Choice C, encouraging the client to focus on a calming image, can be helpful in managing anxiety but may not be as effective during the acute phase of a panic attack. Choice D, administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan), should only be considered if the client does not respond to initial non-pharmacological interventions or if the symptoms are severe and unmanageable.