HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.
Question 2 of 5
A nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client's serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L. The nurse reports the serum sodium level to the physician, and the physician prescribes dietary instructions based on the sodium level. Which food item should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is processed oat cereals. Processed oat cereals are often high in sodium content, which should be avoided in cases of hypernatremia. Peas, cauliflower, and low-fat yogurt are generally low in sodium and are not typically contraindicated in hypernatremia. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
Question 3 of 5
A nurse reviews a client's laboratory report and notes that the client's serum phosphorus level is 2.0 mg/dL. Which condition most likely caused this serum phosphorus level?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcoholism. Alcoholism can lead to hypophosphatemia due to poor dietary intake and other factors. Excessive alcohol consumption can result in malnutrition, particularly a deficiency in phosphorus. Choices B, C, and D are unlikely to cause low serum phosphorus levels. Renal insufficiency is more likely to cause hyperphosphatemia, hypoparathyroidism is associated with hypocalcemia rather than hypophosphatemia, and tumor lysis syndrome typically presents with hyperphosphatemia due to the release of intracellular phosphate.
Question 4 of 5
You are caring for a patient with multiple trauma. Of all of these injuries and conditions, which is the most serious?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A deviated trachea is the most serious condition among the choices provided. It can indicate a tension pneumothorax, which is a life-threatening emergency requiring immediate intervention to prevent respiratory compromise. Choice B, a gross deformity of a lower extremity, while significant, is not as immediately life-threatening as a deviated trachea. Choice C, hematuria, may indicate kidney injury but is not as acutely life-threatening as a deviated trachea. Choice D, decreased bowel sounds, could indicate abdominal issues, but it is not as urgent or immediately life-threatening as a deviated trachea.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following differentiates ulcerative colitis from Crohn's disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Crohn's disease is characterized by noncontiguous, segmented involvement, meaning it can affect different areas with healthy tissue in between, while ulcerative colitis involves continuous areas of inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Crohn's disease can affect any part of the digestive tract from mouth to anus, can present with shallow ulcerations or deep fissures, and is transmural, meaning it affects the entire thickness of the bowel wall. On the other hand, ulcerative colitis typically affects the colon and rectum, presents with a continuous pattern of inflammation, and primarily involves the mucosal lining of the colon.