A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has heart failure. The client has gained weight since her last visit, and her ankles are edematous. Which of the following findings by the nurse is another clinical manifestation of fluid volume excess?

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HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals Questions

Question 1 of 9

A nurse in a provider's office is assessing a client who has heart failure. The client has gained weight since her last visit, and her ankles are edematous. Which of the following findings by the nurse is another clinical manifestation of fluid volume excess?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: A bounding pulse is indicative of fluid volume excess. In this case, the client's weight gain and edematous ankles already suggest fluid volume overload. A bounding pulse occurs due to increased blood volume and pressure. Choices B, C, and D are not indicative of fluid volume excess. Decreased blood pressure, dry mucous membranes, and weak pulse are more commonly associated with conditions such as dehydration or hypovolemia, where there is a decrease in fluid volume rather than an excess.

Question 2 of 9

Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is caring for a client postoperatively. When the nurse prepares to change the dressing, the client says it hurts. Which intervention is the nurse's priority action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before the dressing change is the priority action to help manage the client's pain effectively. This intervention ensures that the client is comfortable during the procedure. Changing the dressing quickly may cause more discomfort to the client. Providing reassurance is important but does not address the immediate pain concern. Using a less painful dressing technique may be helpful, but administering pain medication first is the priority to address the client's pain promptly.

Question 5 of 9

The healthcare professional caring for a patient who is immobile frequently checks for impaired skin integrity. What is the rationale for this action?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The rationale behind checking for impaired skin integrity in an immobile patient is that pressure reduces circulation to the affected tissue. Prolonged pressure on specific body parts can lead to reduced blood flow to those areas, causing tissue damage and potentially leading to pressure ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because inadequate blood flow causing decreased tissue ischemia, limited caloric intake leading to thicker skin, and decreased verbalization of skin care needs are not directly related to the rationale for checking for impaired skin integrity in immobile patients.

Question 6 of 9

A hospitalized male client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via a small-bore tube and a continuous pump infusion. He reports that he had a bad bout of severe coughing a few minutes ago but feels fine now. What action is best for the LPN/LVN to take?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: After a client experiences severe coughing following nasogastric tube feedings, it is crucial to verify proper tube placement. Checking the pH of fluid withdrawn from the tube helps confirm the tube's correct positioning. Option A is incorrect because further action is necessary to ensure the client's safety. Option B is inappropriate as it suggests stopping the feeding without assessing the tube's placement. Option D is incorrect as injecting air into the tube may lead to further complications if the tube is not positioned correctly.

Question 7 of 9

During an initial history and physical assessment of a 3-month-old brought into the clinic for spitting up and excessive gas, what would the nurse expect to find?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and increased mucus production are common signs of gastrointestinal issues or reflux in infants, which could explain the symptoms of spitting up and excessive gas. Increased temperature and lethargy (Choice A) are more indicative of an infection rather than gastrointestinal issues. Increased sleeping and listlessness (Choice C) are not typical signs associated with the symptoms described. Diarrhea and poor skin turgor (Choice D) are not directly related to the symptoms of spitting up and gas in this scenario.

Question 8 of 9

An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for the administration of bolus tube feedings?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fowler's position. Placing the client in Fowler's position, with the head of the bed elevated to 45-60 degrees, reduces the risk of aspiration during bolus enteral feedings by facilitating the flow of the feeding into the stomach. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down, which is not suitable for feeding. Sims' position (choice C) is a side-lying position used for rectal examinations or enemas, not for feeding. Supine position (choice D) is lying flat on the back and is not optimal for reducing the risk of aspiration during bolus tube feedings.

Question 9 of 9

When caring for a client with diarrhea due to Shigella, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct precaution for Shigella infection is to wash hands thoroughly before and after contact with the client. Shigella is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, so hand hygiene is crucial in preventing its spread. Wearing a surgical mask or face shield is not necessary for Shigella as it is not primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets. While wearing a gown and gloves is important for standard precautions, the key precaution specific to Shigella is proper hand hygiene.

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