A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

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HESI Fundamentals Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next after preparing the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves is to clean sutures along the incision site. This step is crucial in preventing infection, which is the greatest risk to the client during suture removal. Cleaning the site helps minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the incision, reducing the chances of infection. Grasping at the knot of the sutures with forceps (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the need to clean the incision. Cutting the sutures close to the skin on one side (Choice C) or pulling out the sutures with forceps in one piece (Choice D) without proper cleaning can increase the risk of infection and should not be the next step in the process of suture removal.

Question 2 of 9

After preparing and lubricating the enema set, what is the correct sequence of steps a nurse should follow when administering a large volume enema to a client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence for administering a large volume enema is as follows: 1. Insert the enema tube into the rectum, 2. Administer the enema solution, 3. Clamp the tube, 4. Remove the tube, 5. Wrap the end with tissue. Therefore, the nurse should remove the enema tube from the client's rectum after administering the enema solution. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the enema tube should be removed from the rectum after the administration of the solution, not before or during the process.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse receives a report about a client who has 0.9% sodium chloride infusing IV at 125 mL/hr. When the nurse performs the initial assessment, they note that the client has received only 80 mL over the last 2 hrs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take in this situation is to check the IV tubing for obstruction. By doing this, the nurse can assess if there is any blockage or kink in the tubing that is impeding the flow of the IV solution. This step is crucial as it helps in identifying the reason for the inadequate infusion rate. Increasing the infusion rate (Choice B) without first checking for obstructions can lead to potential complications if there is a blockage. Administering a bolus of fluid (Choice C) may not be appropriate without addressing the cause of the decreased infusion rate. Similarly, replacing the IV catheter (Choice D) is not the initial priority unless obstruction is ruled out and other troubleshooting measures have been taken.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is caring for a group of clients. How should the nurse prevent the spread of infection?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to place a client with TB in a negative pressure room. Tuberculosis (TB) is an airborne infectious disease, and placing the client in a negative pressure room helps prevent the spread of the infection by containing and filtering the air within the room. Standard precautions (Choice B) are important for preventing the spread of infection in general, but specific precautions are needed for airborne diseases like TB. Placing the client in a private room (Choice C) may not provide adequate ventilation and containment of airborne pathogens. Using barrier precautions (Choice D) alone is not sufficient for preventing the airborne transmission of TB.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is reviewing nutritional guidelines with the parents of a 2-year-old toddler. Which of the following parent statements should indicate to the nurse an understanding of the teaching?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Offering a variety of foods in small portions is appropriate for a 2-year-old toddler as it helps provide balanced nutrition and allows the child to explore different tastes and textures. Choice A is incorrect because whole milk is recommended up to 2 years old, not until 3 years old. Choice B is incorrect as excessive juice intake can lead to excessive sugar consumption and is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as popcorn may pose a choking hazard for toddlers and is not a suitable alternative to sweets.

Question 6 of 9

A client with cardiovascular disease is being taught by a nurse how to reduce sodium and cholesterol intake. The nurse understands that the most significant factor in planning dietary changes for this client is:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most significant factor in planning dietary changes for a client with cardiovascular disease is the involvement of the client in planning the change. By involving the client in the planning process, the nurse ensures that the client takes ownership of their health and is more likely to adhere to and succeed in modifying dietary habits. This empowerment and engagement enhance the client's motivation and commitment to making sustainable changes. Financial resources, availability of low-sodium foods, and frequency of dietary counseling sessions are important considerations but are not as crucial as the client's active involvement in the planning process.

Question 7 of 9

What intervention can help prevent atelectasis and pneumonia in a client with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Chest physiotherapy is essential for clients with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS) to prevent atelectasis and pneumonia. Chest physiotherapy aids in clearing secretions, maintaining lung function, and preventing respiratory complications. Active and passive range of motion exercises (Choice A) are important for maintaining joint mobility but are not directly associated with preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS. Incentive spirometer use every 4 hours (Choice B) is beneficial for lung expansion and preventing atelectasis but may not be as effective as chest physiotherapy in managing secretions. Repositioning every 2 hours (Choice D) is crucial for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing atelectasis and pneumonia in ALS.

Question 8 of 9

When performing nasotracheal suctioning on a client with a respiratory infection, what technique should be used?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct technique for nasotracheal suctioning is to apply intermittent suction when withdrawing the catheter. This method helps prevent damage to the mucosa and is the recommended approach. Continuous suction during insertion (choice B) can cause trauma to the airway lining. Applying suction only during insertion (choice C) is not sufficient for effective removal of secretions. Inserting the catheter while the client is exhaling (choice D) does not follow the standard procedure for nasotracheal suctioning.

Question 9 of 9

When planning home care for a 72-year-old client with osteomyelitis requiring a 6-week course of intravenous antibiotics, what is the most important action by the nurse?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Assessing the client's ability to participate in self-care or evaluating the reliability of a caregiver is crucial in ensuring adherence to the treatment plan. This action helps determine if the client can manage the intravenous antibiotics at home independently or if assistance is needed. Investigating insurance coverage, ensuring hand washing facilities, and selecting the venous access device are important aspects of care but assessing the client's ability for self-care and caregiver reliability takes precedence to promote treatment success and safety.

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