A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

Questions 48

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Adult Health 2 Final Exam Questions

Question 1 of 9

A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

Question 2 of 9

Before a client undergoes a Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) scan with contrast, what should the nurse assess?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Before an MRI scan with contrast, the nurse should assess if the client has any metal implants. Metal implants can interfere with the magnetic field of the MRI, which can pose a risk to the client's safety and compromise the quality of the scan. Assessing for allergies to iodine or shellfish (Choice B) is important for contrast agents but not specific to metal implants. Claustrophobia assessment (Choice C) is relevant for MRI scans due to the confined space but not specific to metal implants. Past procedures (Choice D) are important for comparison but not directly related to the risks associated with metal implants during an MRI scan with contrast.

Question 3 of 9

The healthcare professional is developing a care plan for a client with depression. What should be included in the plan?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A comprehensive care plan for a client with depression should include multiple components to address various aspects of health. Regular physical activity can help improve mood and overall well-being. Scheduled sleep patterns are essential as sleep disturbances are common in depression and can worsen symptoms. Social interaction with family and friends provides emotional support and reduces feelings of isolation. Therefore, including all these aspects in the care plan can help support the client's recovery. Choice D, 'All of the above,' is the correct answer because all the options are important components of a holistic care plan for depression. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of these elements plays a crucial role in managing depression.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder who is taking lithium. What is the most important information the nurse should provide?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor sodium intake.' Sodium levels can affect lithium levels in the body, so it is crucial to maintain a consistent sodium intake to prevent toxicity or subtherapeutic levels. Option A is incorrect because lithium is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Option C, reporting signs of weight gain, is relevant but not as critical as monitoring sodium intake. Option D, avoiding excessive caffeine intake, is important for some individuals but not as essential as monitoring sodium levels when taking lithium.

Question 5 of 9

A postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Assessing the client's lung sounds is the most appropriate initial action when a postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath. This step helps the nurse evaluate the respiratory status and detect abnormalities such as decreased breath sounds or crackles, which could indicate a serious condition like a pulmonary embolism. Administering oxygen (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after assessing the lung sounds to ensure the appropriate intervention. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice B) or preparing for a chest x-ray (Choice C) can be important subsequent actions based on the findings from the lung sound assessment, but they are not the first priority in this situation.

Question 6 of 9

A client is admitted with a diagnosis of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory finding is most indicative of this condition?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive urine ketones. In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), the body breaks down fat for energy due to a lack of insulin, leading to ketone production. Positive urine ketones are a hallmark laboratory finding in DKA as they directly reflect the presence of ketosis. Choice A, serum glucose of 180 mg/dL, may be elevated in DKA, but it is not specific to this condition. Choice B, blood pH of 7.30, often shows acidosis in DKA, but urine ketones are more specific to the presence of ketosis. Choice D, serum bicarbonate of 25 mEq/L, would typically be low in DKA due to acidosis rather than elevated.

Question 7 of 9

After receiving a report, the nurse receives the laboratory values for four clients. Which client requires the nurse's immediate intervention? The client who is...

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: A glucose level of 50 mg/dL is indicative of hypoglycemia, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further complications. Hypoglycemia can lead to serious consequences such as altered mental status, seizures, and even coma if not promptly addressed. The other options do not present immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent intervention. Shortness of breath with a hemoglobin of 8 grams may indicate anemia but does not require immediate intervention. Bleeding from a finger stick with a prothrombin time of 30 seconds may suggest clotting issues, which are important but not as immediately critical as hypoglycemia. Being febrile with an elevated WBC count could indicate infection, which is concerning but not as urgently critical as hypoglycemia.

Question 8 of 9

A client is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound in the morning and has been instructed to fast overnight. The client asks the nurse why fasting is necessary. What is the best response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It ensures clearer imaging by emptying the stomach.' Fasting before an abdominal ultrasound is essential to empty the stomach, allowing for better visualization of the abdominal organs. This improves the quality of the imaging and enhances diagnostic accuracy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because reducing intestinal gases, preventing aspiration, and being a standard procedure for surgical interventions are not the primary reasons for fasting before an abdominal ultrasound.

Question 9 of 9

A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulant therapy. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Reporting signs of bleeding is essential while on anticoagulant therapy to prevent complications.

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