HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A LVN/LPN is caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. The nurse is monitoring the behavior of the client and understands that a client with anorexia nervosa manages anxiety by:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with anorexia nervosa often manage anxiety by adhering strictly to rules and regulations as a way to maintain control. Choice A is incorrect because engaging in immoral acts is not a common coping mechanism for clients with anorexia nervosa. Choice B is incorrect as self-approval is not typically the primary way clients with anorexia nervosa manage anxiety. Choice D is incorrect because while clients with anorexia nervosa may have a need to make the right decision, it is not the primary way they manage their anxiety.
Question 2 of 5
During the admission assessment, a female client requests that her husband be allowed to stay in the room. While interviewing the client, the nurse notes a discrepancy between the client's verbal and nonverbal communication. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Noting both verbal and nonverbal cues is crucial to fully understand the client's condition and any potential underlying issues. Verbal communication may not always align with nonverbal cues, which can provide valuable insights into the client's emotional state and concerns. By paying close attention to and documenting the nonverbal messages, the nurse can gather a more comprehensive understanding of the client's situation. Asking the client's husband to interpret the discrepancy may not be appropriate as it could lead to misinterpretation or breach of confidentiality. Ignoring the nonverbal behavior could result in missing essential cues affecting the overall assessment. Integrating both verbal and nonverbal messages helps in forming a holistic view of the client's needs and concerns, enabling better care delivery.
Question 3 of 5
An outpatient clinic that has been receiving haloperidol (Haldol) for 2 days develops muscular rigidity, altered consciousness, a temperature of 103, and trouble breathing on day 3. The LPN/LVN interprets these findings as indicating which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) is a life-threatening condition characterized by hyperthermia, muscle rigidity, altered consciousness, and autonomic dysregulation. It is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol (Haldol). NMS requires immediate intervention, including discontinuation of the offending medication and supportive care. Tardive dyskinesia (Choice B) is a different condition characterized by involuntary movements of the face and extremities that can occur with long-term antipsychotic use. Extrapyramidal adverse effects (Choice C) encompass a range of movement disorders like dystonia, akathisia, and parkinsonism that can result from antipsychotic medications, but they do not present with hyperthermia and altered consciousness as in NMS. Drug-induced parkinsonism (Choice D) is a form of parkinsonism caused by certain medications, but it typically presents with symptoms similar to Parkinson's disease, such as tremor, bradykinesia, and rigidity, without the severe hyperthermia and autonomic dysregulation seen in NMS.
Question 4 of 5
The LPN/LVN is assessing a client who is taking an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following symptoms is uniquely indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) and requires immediate attention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A very high temperature is a hallmark symptom of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS), which is a rare but potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. This symptom is uniquely indicative of NMS and requires immediate medical attention. Muscular rigidity, tremors, and altered consciousness can be seen in other conditions but are not as specifically linked to NMS as a very high temperature.
Question 5 of 5
The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, 'What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?' Which response is best for the LPN/LVN to provide to this family member?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.