HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A healthcare provider is reviewing a client's medication list during a routine visit. Which action is most important to ensure medication safety?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A comprehensive review of allergies, medication purposes, and potential interactions is crucial for ensuring medication safety. Asking about allergies helps prevent adverse reactions, reviewing medication purposes ensures the correct use of each drug, and checking for potential drug interactions reduces the risk of harmful effects when medications interact. Choosing 'All of the above' is the correct answer because all three actions are essential steps to enhance medication safety. Options A, B, and C individually play vital roles in promoting medication safety, making option D the most appropriate choice.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder who is taking lithium. What is the most important information the nurse should provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor sodium intake.' Sodium levels can affect lithium levels in the body, so it is crucial to maintain a consistent sodium intake to prevent toxicity or subtherapeutic levels. Option A is incorrect because lithium is usually recommended to be taken on an empty stomach to enhance absorption. Option C, reporting signs of weight gain, is relevant but not as critical as monitoring sodium intake. Option D, avoiding excessive caffeine intake, is important for some individuals but not as essential as monitoring sodium levels when taking lithium.
Question 3 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of pneumonia is experiencing difficulty expectorating thick secretions. What intervention should the nurse implement to assist the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the appropriate intervention to assist the client with pneumonia who is having difficulty expectorating thick secretions. Adequate hydration helps to thin the secretions, making them easier to cough up. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important for treating the infection itself but does not directly address the thick secretions. Chest physiotherapy (Choice C) may be beneficial in some cases but is not the initial intervention for thick secretions. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice D) can help with oxygenation but does not directly address the problem of thick secretions.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with a diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease (PUD). Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate dietary recommendation for a client with peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is to avoid spicy foods. Spicy foods can irritate the stomach lining and exacerbate symptoms of PUD. Increasing fiber intake may be beneficial for other gastrointestinal conditions but is not the primary concern for PUD. Avoiding dairy products is not a general recommendation for PUD unless the individual has a specific intolerance. Consuming a high-fat diet can increase the risk of exacerbating PUD symptoms due to the delayed gastric emptying associated with high-fat meals.
Question 5 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gradual onset of dyspnea.' While pulmonary embolism can present with various symptoms, the most common include sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain (often pleuritic in nature), tachypnea, and tachycardia. Bilateral leg swelling is more commonly associated with conditions like deep vein thrombosis, not pulmonary embolism. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation may be seen in conditions like pneumothorax, not typically in pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the gradual onset of dyspnea is the most indicative symptom of pulmonary embolism in this scenario.