A healthcare provider in an office is preparing to auscultate and percuss a client's thorax as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

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Question 1 of 9

A healthcare provider in an office is preparing to auscultate and percuss a client's thorax as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During a thoracic examination, normal findings should include resonance, which is the expected sound when percussing the thorax. Resonance indicates healthy lung tissue and air-filled spaces. Abnormal findings such as rhonchi and crackles suggest issues like lung congestion or inflammation. Tactile fremitus refers to vibrations felt on the chest wall during palpation and is not typically assessed during percussion and auscultation of the thorax.

Question 2 of 9

Before administering the prescribed morphine sulfate to a client post-op following laparotomy who reports pain and dry mouth, what should the nurse do first?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Before administering morphine sulfate, it is crucial to measure the client's vital signs to ensure that the client is stable and safe to receive the medication. This step helps identify any contraindications or abnormalities that could affect the administration of morphine. Assessing the client's pain level (choice B) is important, but ensuring the client's physiological stability takes precedence. Verifying the morphine order with another nurse (choice C) and checking the client's last dose of morphine (choice D) are important steps but are not the priority before administering the medication.

Question 3 of 9

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer 0.9% sodium chloride (0.9% NaCl) 250 mL IV to infuse over 30 min. The drop factor of the manual IV tubing is 10 gtt/mL. How many gtt/min should the healthcare professional adjust the manual IV infusion to deliver? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: To administer 250 mL over 30 min with a drop factor of 10 gtt/mL, the healthcare professional should adjust the IV infusion to deliver 100 gtt/min. The correct calculation is: (250 mL · 30 min) x 10 gtt/mL = 100 gtt/min. This rate ensures the proper administration of the IV solution within the specified time frame. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the accurate calculation based on the provided data.

Question 4 of 9

A healthcare provider is delegating client care to assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks should the healthcare provider delegate?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct task that a healthcare provider should delegate to assistive personnel is performing a simple dressing change. Assistive personnel are trained and competent in performing basic wound care activities like simple dressing changes. Evaluating the healing of an incision requires clinical judgment and assessment skills that are typically performed by licensed healthcare professionals, such as nurses or physicians. Inserting an NG tube and changing IV tubing involve invasive procedures that require specialized training and skills, making them tasks that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers rather than assistive personnel.

Question 5 of 9

A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide to the client?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate can cause irritation to the esophagus, so it is important to take it with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to help prevent this irritation. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice B) may increase the risk of esophageal irritation as lying down can allow the medication to remain in the esophagus longer. Taking the medication with food (choice C) or on an empty stomach (choice D) can also interfere with the absorption of alendronate, reducing its effectiveness in treating osteoporosis.

Question 6 of 9

A client has been on bed rest for several weeks. Which finding should the nurse identify as the priority during assessment?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize assessing left lower extremity tenderness as it could indicate deep vein thrombosis, a serious condition that requires immediate attention. Musculoskeletal weakness, loss of appetite, and increased heart rate during physical activity are important but not as critical as a potential thrombotic event that could lead to life-threatening complications. Deep vein thrombosis is a common risk for individuals on prolonged bed rest due to reduced mobility and blood stasis.

Question 7 of 9

The healthcare professional is preparing to administer a medication through a nasogastric (NG) tube. Which action should the healthcare professional take to ensure proper administration?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Flushing the NG tube with water before and after medication administration is essential to ensure the tube is patent and prevent clogging. This action helps in clearing the tube and ensures that the medication is delivered properly. Administering medication with food (Choice B) may not be appropriate for all medications and can interfere with their absorption. Verifying tube placement by aspirating stomach contents (Choice C) is important but does not directly relate to ensuring proper medication administration. Diluting the medication with normal saline (Choice D) is not a standard practice for administering medications through an NG tube.

Question 8 of 9

The charge nurse has a health care team that consists of 1 PN, 1 unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), and 1 PN nursing student. Which assignment should be questioned by the nurse manager?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Assigning an admission with atrial fibrillation and heart failure to a PN is not appropriate. This complex case requires more advanced skills and should not be managed by a PN without adequate support. The PN may not have the necessary training or expertise to handle such a critical situation effectively. Choice B is a suitable assignment for a PN nursing student as they can handle a client who had a major stroke 6 days ago. Choice C is also appropriate as a child with burns receiving packed cells and albumin IV running can be managed by the charge nurse. Choice D is within the scope of practice for a UAP since an elderly client post-myocardial infarction a week ago may require basic care and assistance.

Question 9 of 9

A client has recently started using a behind-the-ear hearing aid. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the use of this assistive device?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because removing the hearing aid before taking a shower is essential to prevent water damage, as moisture can harm the device. Choice A is incorrect because behind-the-ear hearing aids do allow for fine-tuning of volume. Choice B is incorrect because exercise may cause the hearing aid to shift position, so it's important to ensure it stays secure. Choice C is incorrect because hearing a whistling sound when inserting the hearing aid may indicate improper placement or fit.

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