A healthcare provider in an office is preparing to auscultate and percuss a client's thorax as part of a comprehensive physical examination. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: During a thoracic examination, normal findings should include resonance, which is the expected sound when percussing the thorax. Resonance indicates healthy lung tissue and air-filled spaces. Abnormal findings such as rhonchi and crackles suggest issues like lung congestion or inflammation. Tactile fremitus refers to vibrations felt on the chest wall during palpation and is not typically assessed during percussion and auscultation of the thorax.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because removing the hearing aid before taking a shower is essential to prevent water damage, as moisture can harm the device. Choice A is incorrect because behind-the-ear hearing aids do allow for fine-tuning of volume. Choice B is incorrect because exercise may cause the hearing aid to shift position, so it's important to ensure it stays secure. Choice C is incorrect because hearing a whistling sound when inserting the hearing aid may indicate improper placement or fit.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct technique for surgical handwashing involves scrubbing with hands held higher than the elbows. This positioning helps prevent water from the contaminated area (the hands) from flowing towards the cleaner area (the elbows). This directional flow minimizes the risk of contaminating the scrubbed hands during the handwashing process. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect: A - having hands lower than elbows would risk contamination of the clean area, C - using a fist position does not ensure proper coverage and thorough handwashing, and D - placing hands on the chest is not part of the proper surgical handwashing technique.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is an ethical dilemma when the family of a client with a terminal illness asks healthcare providers not to inform the client of their diagnosis. This situation poses a conflict between respecting the client's right to know the truth about their condition (autonomy and truth-telling principles) and honoring the family's wishes. Choices A, B, and D do not present ethical dilemmas. Choice A involves professional accountability and responsibility, Choice B involves a client's personal preference, and Choice D involves financial challenges.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Potassium 5.4'. A potassium level of 5.4 is elevated (normal range is typically 3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and may indicate hyperkalemia, which can have serious cardiac implications. Elevated potassium levels can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, so immediate reporting and intervention are necessary. Choice B, 'Sodium 140', falls within the normal range (135-145 mEq/L) and does not require immediate reporting. Choice C, 'Calcium 8.6', falls within the normal range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not an immediate concern. Choice D, 'Magnesium 2.0', is within the normal range (1.5-2.5 mEq/L) and does not need urgent reporting. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize reporting the elevated potassium level as it poses the most immediate risk.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Formula or breast milk. In infants with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration, it is essential to continue feeding them with formula or breast milk along with oral rehydration fluids to provide adequate nutrition and maintain hydration. Option B, broth and tea, may not provide the necessary nutrients and electrolytes needed for the infant's recovery. Option C, rice cereal and apple juice, can be harsh on the digestive system and may exacerbate diarrhea. Option D, gelatin and ginger ale, do not provide the necessary nutrients and can worsen the condition due to the high sugar content in ginger ale.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Heat stroke is characterized by elevated body temperature, which can lead to hypotension (low blood pressure) due to dehydration and vasodilation. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) and clammy skin are not typical findings in heat stroke. Bradypnea (slow breathing) is also not a common feature of heat stroke. Therefore, hypotension is the most likely cardiovascular manifestation seen in a client with heat stroke.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the LPN should continue asking the mother questions about the child. The mother's behavior of looking at the floor may be a cultural practice, such as avoiding direct eye contact, which should be respected. By maintaining the conversation with the mother, the nurse acknowledges and respects her communication style, fostering trust and open dialogue. Option A is not the best choice as it may disregard the cultural context and the importance of the mother's input. Option C is unnecessary as the LPN can effectively handle the situation. Option D could be perceived as insensitive and may disrupt the rapport between the nurse and the mother.