A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

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HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals Questions

Question 1 of 9

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To administer 200 mg of metoprolol using 100 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet contains 100 mg of metoprolol, so 2 tablets will provide the required 200 mg dose. Choice A is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 100 mg, which is insufficient. Choice C is incorrect as fractions of tablets are usually not used in practice to ensure accurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as it would result in an overdose, providing 400 mg instead of the prescribed 200 mg.

Question 2 of 9

A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: To administer 200 mg of metoprolol using 100 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet contains 100 mg of metoprolol, so 2 tablets will provide the required 200 mg dose. Choice A is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 100 mg, which is insufficient. Choice C is incorrect as fractions of tablets are usually not used in practice to ensure accurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as it would result in an overdose, providing 400 mg instead of the prescribed 200 mg.

Question 3 of 9

A nurse is assessing the heart sounds of a client who has developed chest pain that becomes worse with inspiration. The nurse auscultates a high-pitched scratching sound during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border. Which of the following heart sounds should the nurse document?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral stenosis. A high-pitched scratching sound heard during both systole and diastole with the diaphragm of the stethoscope positioned at the left sternal border indicates mitral stenosis, not a pericardial friction rub. Pericardial friction rub is a to-and-fro, grating, or scratching sound due to inflamed pericardial surfaces rubbing together, typically heard in early diastole and late systole. Aortic regurgitation and tricuspid stenosis would present with different auscultatory findings compared to the described scenario, making them incorrect choices in this context.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is talking with an adolescent who is having difficulty dealing with several issues. Which of the following issues should the nurse identify as the priority?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Skipping meals to lose weight may indicate an eating disorder or significant distress, which can have serious health implications. This behavior raises concerns about the adolescent's physical and mental well-being. The nurse should prioritize addressing potential eating disorders and body image issues in this situation. Choices A, B, and D, while important, do not pose an immediate risk to the adolescent's health or well-being compared to the potential consequences of disordered eating behavior.

Question 5 of 9

When caring for a client with diarrhea due to Shigella, which of the following precautions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct precaution for Shigella infection is to wash hands thoroughly before and after contact with the client. Shigella is transmitted through the fecal-oral route, so hand hygiene is crucial in preventing its spread. Wearing a surgical mask or face shield is not necessary for Shigella as it is not primarily transmitted through respiratory droplets. While wearing a gown and gloves is important for standard precautions, the key precaution specific to Shigella is proper hand hygiene.

Question 6 of 9

The patient is immobilized after undergoing hip replacement surgery. Which finding will alert the nurse to monitor for hemorrhage in this patient?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, which is low-molecular-weight heparin doses. After hip replacement surgery, patients are at risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility. Heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin are commonly used for prophylaxis against DVT. Monitoring for hemorrhage is crucial when administering anticoagulants. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to monitoring for hemorrhage in this scenario. Thick, tenacious pulmonary secretions (Choice A) may indicate respiratory issues, SCDs (Choice C) help prevent DVT but do not directly relate to hemorrhage monitoring, and elastic stockings (TED hose) (Choice D) are used for DVT prophylaxis but do not alert to hemorrhage.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse in a provider's office is obtaining the health and medication history of a client who has a respiratory infection. The client tells the nurse that she is not aware of any allergies, but that she did develop a rash the last time she was taking an antibiotic. Which of the following information should the nurse give the client?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. If a client reports developing a rash when taking a specific medication, even if they are not aware of any allergies, it is crucial to document this information. This is necessary to prevent future allergic reactions. Identifying the exact medication that caused the rash is essential as the client could have an allergy to it. Providing this information allows healthcare providers to avoid prescribing the same medication again, which could potentially lead to more severe allergic reactions or life-threatening situations. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not address the importance of documenting the specific medication that caused the adverse reaction or the potential risks of repeating the medication. Simply attributing the rash to common occurrences, adverse effects of medications in general, or assuming the rash is insignificant in the current context can overlook the critical aspect of identifying and avoiding allergens.

Question 8 of 9

A client is scheduled for hip surgery in an hour. Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's priority is to ensure that the client signs the consent form before the hip surgery. This is crucial as it ensures that the client has provided informed consent for the procedure. Locking valuables, verifying lab values, and administering sedatives are important tasks but ensuring consent takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's right to make decisions about their care.

Question 9 of 9

A client with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing and wheezing. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and wheezing, the priority nursing action is to administer a bronchodilator. This intervention helps relieve bronchospasm and improve the client's breathing. Obtaining a peak flow reading can provide additional information but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Providing supplemental oxygen may be needed but addressing the bronchospasm with a bronchodilator takes precedence. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is important but not as urgent as administering a bronchodilator to address the breathing difficulty.

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