A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Perineal care should be encouraged to be done by the patient if they are capable of performing self-care. In this scenario, the patient is not ambulatory and has full function of all extremities, indicating that the patient can independently perform perineal care. Encouraging self-care promotes independence and maintains the patient's dignity. Postponing perineal care (Choice A) is incorrect because it is essential for hygiene. Choice B is incorrect as perineal care is necessary for all patients regardless of circumcision status. Choice D is incorrect as the patient is capable of performing the care independently, and promoting self-care is a priority in nursing practice.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should call the provider for clarification. In situations where there is difficulty reading an order, it is crucial to directly contact the healthcare provider to ensure the correct order is understood and followed. Leaving the order for the oncoming staff (Choice A) may lead to misunderstandings and errors. Contacting the charge nurse (Choice B) may cause delays as they may also need to contact the provider. Asking the pharmacy (Choice C) is not the most direct and immediate action in this scenario, as the provider is the one who can provide immediate clarification.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Assigning an admission with atrial fibrillation and heart failure to a PN is not appropriate. This complex case requires more advanced skills and should not be managed by a PN without adequate support. The PN may not have the necessary training or expertise to handle such a critical situation effectively. Choice B is a suitable assignment for a PN nursing student as they can handle a client who had a major stroke 6 days ago. Choice C is also appropriate as a child with burns receiving packed cells and albumin IV running can be managed by the charge nurse. Choice D is within the scope of practice for a UAP since an elderly client post-myocardial infarction a week ago may require basic care and assistance.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Setting daily goals and prioritizing tasks is crucial for effective time management as a nurse manager. This approach helps in organizing and focusing on the most important responsibilities, ensuring that key tasks are completed efficiently. Choice A is incorrect as scheduling staff efficiently, while important, is more related to staffing management than direct time management strategies. Choice B is incorrect as assuming direct client care does not necessarily align with effective time management strategies for a nurse manager, as their primary role is overseeing and coordinating care. Choice D, while delegation is a key aspect of time management, the emphasis on reducing workload specifically associated with direct care and meetings may not always be the primary focus of a nurse manager's time management strategies.