HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A dispersion consists of a solute dispersed through a dispersing vehicle. Which of the following dispersions is a liquid for topical application that contains insoluble solids or liquids?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Lotion.' A lotion is a liquid dispersion that contains insoluble solids or liquids for topical application. Ointments are more semi-solid and occlusive, pastes are thicker and contain higher concentrations of solids, and gels have a jelly-like consistency due to their three-dimensional network structure. Therefore, among the options, a lotion is the most suitable choice for containing insoluble solids or liquids for topical application.
Question 2 of 5
The mother of a 9-month-old child diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to a friend's child's first birthday party the following day. Which response should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Do not expose other children as the virus is very contagious even without direct contact.' RSV is highly contagious, especially in young children. Allowing the infected child to attend a birthday party can put other children at risk of contracting the virus. Choice B is incorrect as RSV can remain contagious for a period of time. Choice C is not sufficient, as wearing a mask may not entirely prevent the spread of the virus. Choice D is inaccurate, as children under 5 months are not the only ones susceptible to RSV; all young children are at risk.
Question 3 of 5
After admission, which observation is most important for the nurse to report immediately for an adult client who weighs 150 pounds and has partial-thickness and full-thickness burns over 40% of the body from a house fire?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A urinary output of 20 ml/hr is a sign of inadequate kidney perfusion and could indicate hypovolemic shock, which requires immediate intervention. In this situation, with severe burns over a large portion of the body, monitoring urinary output is crucial to assess kidney function and fluid status. Poor appetite, systolic blood pressure at 102, and painful moaning and crying are important but do not indicate the immediate need for intervention like inadequate urinary output does.
Question 4 of 5
While providing oral care for a client who is unconscious, the nurse positions the client laterally and uses a basin to collect secretions. Which intervention is best for the nurse to implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using oral swabs with normal saline is the best intervention in this scenario as it effectively cleans the oral cavity without causing irritation or dryness, which is crucial for an unconscious client. Swabbing the oral cavity with a washcloth may not provide thorough cleaning, and it can potentially cause irritation. Providing a Yankauer tip for oral suction is not necessary unless there are excessive secretions that need to be suctioned. Supporting the head with a small pillow, although important for comfort, is not directly related to oral care in an unconscious client.
Question 5 of 5
At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.