HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI Questions
Question 1 of 9
A community health nurse is caring for a group of families. The nurse should identify which of the following families is experiencing a maturational loss?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because maturational loss is related to developmental changes, such as children leaving for college. This type of loss is tied to the normal life transitions of individuals and can lead to feelings of grief and adjustment. Choices A, B, and C represent different types of losses. Choice A involves a traumatic loss of a child due to illness, choice B involves a financial loss impacting the head of household's job, and choice C involves a material loss due to a fire incident. While these losses are significant, they do not specifically relate to maturational loss, which is associated with expected life stage transitions.
Question 2 of 9
A client with a prescription for a clear liquid diet is receiving teaching about food choices from a nurse. Which of the following selections by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gelatin. Gelatin is suitable for a clear liquid diet because it is transparent and free of solid particles. Clear liquid diets are designed to be easily digested and leave minimal residue in the gastrointestinal tract. Choices B, C, and D are not appropriate for a clear liquid diet. Whole milk, cream soups, and orange juice contain solid particles or pulp, which are not allowed on a clear liquid diet. Whole milk and cream soups are not clear liquids as they contain milk solids and vegetable particles respectively. Orange juice contains pulp, which is not part of a clear liquid diet. It is important for clients to follow dietary restrictions to achieve the intended therapeutic outcomes.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is preparing change of shift report after the night shift using one SBAR communication tool. Which of the following data should the nurse include when reporting background information?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. When providing background information in a shift report using the SBAR communication tool, the nurse should include details related to medication administration and orders. This helps ensure continuity of care and accurate handover of responsibilities. Choices A, C, and D do not typically fall under background information for shift reports. A blood pressure reading, pain rating, and code status are more relevant to the patient's current condition and status, rather than background information about medications or orders.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse providing care for a client who reports pain. The nurse checked the client's MAR and noted the last dose of pain medication was administered 6 hours ago. The prescription specifies administration every 4 hours PRN for pain. The nurse administered the medication and followed up with the client 40 minutes later, who reported improvement. What did the newly licensed nurse overlook in the nursing process?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Assessment.' In the nursing process, assessment is the first step, crucial before any intervention. Assessment involves gathering data about the client's condition to establish a baseline for evaluating responses to interventions. In this scenario, the newly licensed nurse missed assessing the client's pain intensity, location, quality, and other relevant factors before administering the pain medication. While the follow-up evaluation with the client is commendable, it cannot replace the initial assessment. Planning involves setting goals and outcomes, intervention is the action taken to achieve these goals, and evaluation assesses the client's response to the intervention.
Question 5 of 9
A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.
Question 6 of 9
Why should a client with an ileal conduit be instructed to empty the collection device frequently?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A full urine collection bag can cause the device to pull away from the skin, leading to potential leakage and skin irritation. Choice A is incorrect because a full urine collection bag does not force urine to back up into the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as a full collection bag does not suppress the production of urine. Choice D is incorrect as a full collection bag is unlikely to tear the ileal conduit.
Question 7 of 9
The LPN/LVN is assisting with the care of a client who has had a stroke. Which intervention is most important to include in the client's plan of care to prevent joint contractures?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Using pillows to keep the client's extremities in a functional position is crucial in preventing joint contractures. This intervention helps maintain proper alignment of the joints and reduces the risk of contractures by preventing prolonged positioning that can lead to muscle shortening. Encouraging the client to perform active range-of-motion exercises (Choice A) is beneficial for maintaining mobility but may not be the most important intervention to prevent joint contractures. Placing the client in a prone position for 30 minutes each day (Choice C) can be helpful for preventing pressure ulcers but is not directly related to preventing joint contractures. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises on the affected side (Choice D) can aid in maintaining joint flexibility but may not be as crucial as using pillows to prevent joint contractures.
Question 8 of 9
The patient diagnosed with athlete's foot (tinea pedis) states that he is relieved because it is only athlete's foot, and it can be treated easily. Which information about this condition should the nurse consider when formulating a response to the patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Athlete's foot, also known as tinea pedis, is a contagious fungal infection that can easily spread to other body parts, particularly the hands. It often recurs if not properly treated, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because while it is beneficial to air-dry feet after bathing to prevent moisture buildup, athlete's foot is commonly treated with antifungal medications, not salicylic acid. Choice D is incorrect because athlete's foot is caused by a fungal infection, not lice.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse is caring for an older adult client who is confused and continually grabs at the nurse. Which of the following is a nursing action?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Redirecting the client's attention is the appropriate nursing action in this scenario. When dealing with a confused client exhibiting grabbing behavior, redirection can help shift their focus to a more appropriate activity or object. Firmly telling the client not to grab may escalate the situation and create a confrontational environment, which is not recommended when caring for confused clients. The use of physical restraints should be a last resort and only implemented after all other strategies have been exhausted, as they can contribute to increased agitation and distress in older adults. Avoiding contact with the client is not a proactive approach to managing the behavior and may lead to feelings of neglect or abandonment in the client.