HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health Practice Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Asking the client what the voices are saying is the most appropriate intervention as it helps the nurse assess the content of the hallucinations and the potential risk they may pose. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue or provide valuable information for the nurse. Distracting the client with a new activity (Choice C) may temporarily divert attention but does not address the hallucinations. Telling the client that the voices are not real (Choice D) may invalidate the client's experience and can lead to distrust in the therapeutic relationship.
Question 2 of 5
When caring for a client with borderline personality disorder in a psychiatric unit, what is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Setting clear and consistent boundaries is the most therapeutic nursing intervention when caring for a client with borderline personality disorder. This approach provides structure, promotes predictability, and helps prevent manipulative behaviors. By establishing boundaries, the nurse can maintain a safe therapeutic relationship with the client. Allowing the client to vent their feelings without interruption (Choice B) may not always be beneficial, as it could reinforce maladaptive behaviors. Encouraging participation in group therapy (Choice C) can be helpful but setting boundaries is more critical for individualized care. Providing the client with frequent reassurance and support (Choice D) may not address the underlying issues and can contribute to dependency rather than fostering independence and coping skills.
Question 3 of 5
An older homeless client visits the psychiatric clinic to obtain a prescription renewal for alprazolam (Xanax). During the health assessment, the client complains of chest pain. Which action should the RN take first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Determining if Xanax was taken recently is crucial as it helps assess whether the chest pain is related to medication use or another issue, guiding appropriate immediate care. This action can provide essential information to address the client's current complaint effectively. Referring the client to the cardiology unit (Choice A) may be premature without assessing the Xanax use first. While obtaining the client's blood pressure (Choice B) is important, it is not the priority when the client presents with chest pain and a history of taking Xanax. Assessing the client for substance abuse (Choice C) is also important but is secondary to first determining the potential link between Xanax and the chest pain.
Question 4 of 5
The RN documents the mental status of a female client who has been hospitalized for several days by court order. The client states 'I don't need to be here,' and tells the RN that she believes that the TV talks to her. The RN should document these assessment statements in which section of the mental status exam?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insight and judgment. The client's statements indicate her lack of insight into her need for hospitalization ('I don't need to be here') and the presence of a delusion (believing that the TV talks to her). These statements reflect the client's insight into her condition and judgment. This information is crucial for assessing the client's understanding of her situation and decision-making capacity. Choice B, Mood and affect, focuses on the client's emotional state rather than her insight and judgment. Choice C, Remote memory, pertains to the ability to recall past events, which is not the primary focus of the client's statements. Choice D, Level of concentration, is not directly related to the client's statements about her need for hospitalization and the delusional belief about the TV.
Question 5 of 5
During the manic phase of bipolar disorder, what is the priority nursing intervention for a female client who has not slept for the past 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct priority nursing intervention for a female client in the manic phase of bipolar disorder, who has not slept for 48 hours, is hyperactive, talkative, and engaging in risky behaviors, is to provide a safe environment and limit stimuli. This approach is crucial to prevent harm to the client and others. Encouraging a quiet activity (Choice A) may not effectively address the need for safety during the manic phase. Administering a sedative (Choice C) should be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider and does not address the immediate safety concerns. Discussing consequences of risky behaviors (Choice D) may not be effective during the manic phase when the client's judgment is impaired.