HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with rheumatoid arthritis has elevated serum rheumatoid factor. Which interpretation of this finding should the nurse make?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct interpretation of elevated serum rheumatoid factor in a client with rheumatoid arthritis is confirmation of the autoimmune disease process. Rheumatoid factor is a marker for autoimmune activity, thus confirming the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis. Choice A is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not specifically indicate spread of the disease to the kidney. Choice C is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor does not always represent a decline in the client's condition. Choice D is incorrect as elevated rheumatoid factor is not an indication of the onset of joint degeneration, but rather points towards autoimmune activity.
Question 2 of 5
Which additional congenital malformation is expected in 80% of infants with a myelomeningocele?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hydrocephalus is the additional congenital malformation expected in 80% of infants with a myelomeningocele. Myelomeningocele is commonly associated with hydrocephalus due to the abnormal accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid in the brain. Cerebral palsy (Choice A) is a motor disorder but not typically associated with myelomeningocele. Meningitis (Choice C) is an infection of the meninges and is not a congenital malformation. Neuroblastoma (Choice D) is a type of cancer that originates in immature nerve cells and is not a typical association with myelomeningocele.
Question 3 of 5
A healthcare worker with no known exposure to tuberculosis has received a Mantoux tuberculosis skin test. The nurse's assessment of the test after 62 hours indicates 5mm of erythema without induration. Which is the best initial nursing action?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A Mantoux tuberculosis skin test without induration is considered negative. In this case, with 5mm of erythema and no induration, the result is negative, indicating no current infection. The best initial nursing action is to document these negative results in the healthcare worker's medical record. Reviewing the history for possible exposure to TB is unnecessary as the test result is negative. Instructing the healthcare worker to return for a repeat test or referring for INH therapy is not warranted when the test is negative.
Question 4 of 5
An adult client is admitted with AIDS and oral candidiasis manifested by several painful mouth ulcers. The nurse delegates oral care to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) and discusses how to assist the client. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Provide a soft bristle brush for the client to use during oral care.' Providing a soft bristle brush helps reduce trauma to the oral mucosa and assists in oral care. Choice A is incorrect because oral care can be safely delegated to UAPs. Choice C is wrong as alcohol-based mouthwash can further irritate the ulcers. Choice D is incorrect as applying an antifungal cream directly to the mouth ulcers is not the standard treatment for oral candidiasis.
Question 5 of 5
While planning care for a client with carpal tunnel syndrome, the nurse identifies a collaborative problem of pain. What is the etiology of this problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Compression of a nerve. In carpal tunnel syndrome, pain arises from the compression of the median nerve within the carpal tunnel. This compression leads to symptoms such as pain, numbness, and tingling in the hand and arm. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because carpal tunnel syndrome pain is primarily caused by the physical compression of the nerve, rather than irritation of nerve endings, diminished blood flow, or ischemic tissue changes.
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