A client with moderate persistent asthma is admitted for a minor surgical procedure. On admission, the peak flow meter is measured at 480 liters/minute. Post-operatively, the client is complaining of chest tightness. The peak flow has dropped to 200 liters/minute. What should the nurse do first?

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Question 1 of 5

A client with moderate persistent asthma is admitted for a minor surgical procedure. On admission, the peak flow meter is measured at 480 liters/minute. Post-operatively, the client is complaining of chest tightness. The peak flow has dropped to 200 liters/minute. What should the nurse do first?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a client with moderate persistent asthma experiencing a drop in peak flow and chest tightness post-operatively, the first action the nurse should take is to administer the PRN dose of Albuterol. Albuterol is a short-acting bronchodilator that helps relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Notifying the healthcare provider (choice A) can be done after initiating immediate treatment with Albuterol. Applying oxygen (choice C) may be necessary but addressing the bronchospasm with Albuterol is the priority. Repeating the peak flow reading (choice D) can be considered after administering Albuterol to assess the response to treatment.

Question 2 of 5

An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.

Question 3 of 5

A male Native American presents to the clinic with complaints of frequent abdominal cramping and nausea. He states that he has chronic constipation and had not had a bowel movement in five days, despite trying several home remedies. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Assessing for impaction is crucial as it is a common cause of constipation and abdominal discomfort. In this scenario, the patient's symptoms of chronic constipation and no bowel movement for five days despite trying home remedies indicate a potential impaction that needs to be assessed. Evaluating stool samples for blood, determining the home remedies used, or obtaining a list of prescribed medications, while potentially relevant, are not as urgent as assessing for impaction in this situation.

Question 4 of 5

While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the LPN/LVN implement?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Acknowledging that the client's wife is supporting the arm correctly is the appropriate nursing action in this scenario. By doing so, the nurse reinforces correct technique and promotes confidence. Choice B is incorrect as the issue is not about maintaining warmth. Choice C is incorrect as gripping directly under the joint is not necessary in this case. Choice D is incorrect as instructing to grip directly over the joint may not provide the best support for passive range-of-motion exercises.

Question 5 of 5

A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

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