Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'It is common for antidepressants to take several weeks to have an effect.' This response is appropriate because SSRI and other antidepressants often require several weeks to exhibit improvement in mood. It is crucial to educate the client about this delay to manage expectations and promote adherence to the medication regimen. Choice B is incorrect as switching medications prematurely is not typically recommended after just one week. Choice C is incorrect because it sets unrealistic expectations for immediate improvement. Choice D is incorrect as it may come across as accusatory and should not be the initial response.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with difficulty sleeping due to depression and prescribed fluoxetine is to suggest the client drink a warm beverage before bedtime. This intervention can promote relaxation and help establish a bedtime routine, potentially improving sleep quality. Encouraging short naps during the day (Choice A) may disrupt the client's nighttime sleep schedule. Recommending exercise immediately before bedtime (Choice C) can have a stimulating effect, making it harder for the client to fall asleep. Advising the client to take a sleep aid nightly (Choice D) should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider due to potential interactions with fluoxetine.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Explaining that it may take up to 8 weeks for the medication to take full effect provides the client with a realistic expectation. SSRI medications typically require time to build up in the body and exert their therapeutic effects. Choice A is incorrect as it underestimates the time frame required for the medication to work. Choice B is incorrect as SSRIs do not produce immediate effects. Choice C is incorrect as it falsely states that the medication works immediately, which is not true for SSRIs.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The best response for the LPN/LVN to provide to the wife of a male client diagnosed with schizophrenia is choice B: 'It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.' This response educates the wife about the nature of schizophrenia, explaining that it is caused by a chemical imbalance in the brain leading to disorganized thinking, helping her understand the condition better. Choice A does not directly address the question and instead shifts the focus to a different aspect. Choice C gives false reassurance without providing necessary information about schizophrenia. Choice D deflects the responsibility of providing information to the psychologist instead of addressing the wife's concerns directly.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is to ask the mother if she has ever thought about harming herself or her child. This is crucial to assess for suicidal or homicidal thoughts, ensuring the safety of both the mother and the child. Reassuring the mother about achieving some milestones may not address her immediate emotional distress. Inquiring about other children's developmental status is not the priority when safety concerns are present. While journaling can be therapeutic, in this situation, addressing safety takes precedence.