HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology, it is crucial for nurses to understand the potential adverse effects of medications to provide safe and effective patient care. In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Peripheral edema. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly prescribed for hypertension. One of the common adverse effects of amlodipine is peripheral edema, which manifests as swelling in the extremities due to fluid accumulation. This occurs as a result of the vasodilatory effects of the medication on the peripheral arteries. Option B) Bradycardia is incorrect because amlodipine is not known to cause a decrease in heart rate; rather, it primarily affects blood pressure regulation. Option C) Hypertension is incorrect as the client is already being treated for hypertension with amlodipine, so a worsening of hypertension would not be an expected adverse effect. Option D) Increased appetite is incorrect as amlodipine does not typically impact appetite as an adverse effect. Educationally, understanding the potential adverse effects of medications helps nurses in monitoring and managing patients effectively. It also reinforces the importance of thorough medication assessments and patient education to recognize and report adverse reactions promptly.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding as rivaroxaban increases the risk of bleeding. Common adverse effects of rivaroxaban include bleeding events, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. It is crucial for the nurse to assess for these signs to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety.
Question 3 of 5
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to report any signs of heart failure when taking pioglitazone. Pioglitazone is known to potentially exacerbate heart failure, so it is crucial for clients to monitor and report any symptoms of heart failure promptly to their healthcare provider for appropriate management.
Question 4 of 5
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate, the nurse should monitor for constipation as a potential side effect. Ferric citrate can lead to constipation due to its effects on the gastrointestinal system, causing a decrease in bowel movements. It is essential for the nurse to assess and manage constipation promptly to prevent complications and ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Monitoring bowel movements, providing adequate hydration, and recommending dietary interventions can help alleviate constipation in clients taking ferric citrate.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed citalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential side effect of citalopram is nausea. Citalopram can cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea, so clients should be advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs to help minimize this side effect. While other side effects like drowsiness, insomnia, and headache may also occur with citalopram, nausea is a common side effect that clients should be informed about.