HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is being taught about dietary modifications. What should be emphasized?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In managing GERD, dietary modifications play a significant role. Avoiding spicy and fatty foods helps reduce irritation, while eating small, frequent meals prevents overeating, which can trigger reflux. Avoiding meals before bedtime allows for better digestion and reduces the likelihood of acid reflux during the night. Therefore, all of the options (A, B, and C) are crucial in managing GERD symptoms, making choice D the correct answer.
Question 2 of 9
What intervention has the highest priority for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration following the vaginal delivery of an 8-pound 10-ounce infant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering a prescribed stool softener is the highest priority intervention for a client with a fourth-degree midline laceration to prevent straining during bowel movements, which could potentially harm the healing laceration. Stool softeners help in maintaining soft stools, reducing the risk of injury to the suture line. Administering PRN sleep medications, encouraging breastfeeding, or promoting the use of analgesic perineal sprays are important aspects of care but are not the priority in this situation. Stool softeners play a crucial role in preventing complications and promoting healing in such cases, making it the most urgent intervention.
Question 3 of 9
Based on the Nursing diagnosis of 'Potential for infection related to second and third degree burns,' which intervention has the highest priority?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The highest priority intervention in this scenario is B, the use of careful hand washing technique. Proper hand hygiene is essential in preventing infection, especially in individuals with compromised skin integrity like those with burns. By practicing careful hand washing, healthcare providers reduce the risk of introducing harmful pathogens to the burn wound, thus lowering the chances of infections. Choice A, application of topical antibacterial cream, is important but should follow ensuring proper hand hygiene. Choice C, administration of plasma expanders, is not directly associated with preventing burn-related infections. Choice D, limiting visitors, is significant for infection control, but ensuring proper hand hygiene outweighs this intervention in terms of priority.
Question 4 of 9
The client is being taught about managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which dietary restriction should be emphasized the most?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Restricting protein intake is vital in managing chronic kidney disease (CKD) as it helps decrease the kidneys' workload and slows down disease progression. High-fiber foods are generally beneficial for health and should not be limited in CKD management. Dairy products can be consumed moderately unless contraindicated. While adequate fluid intake is crucial, increasing intake excessively may not be suitable for all CKD patients, especially those with fluid restrictions. Therefore, the most crucial dietary restriction to emphasize in CKD management is restricting protein intake.
Question 5 of 9
After morning dressing changes, a male client with paraplegia contaminates his ischial decubiti dressing with diarrheal stool. What is the best activity for the nurse to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The best activity for the nurse to assign to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) in this situation is to provide perianal care and collect clean linens for the dressing change. This task is crucial to maintain proper hygiene, prevent infection, and promote healing in the areas affected by decubiti. Choice A is not the priority as addressing the contamination and ensuring hygiene is more critical. Choice C is not the immediate concern and does not address the current situation. Choice D involves direct client care tasks that should be handled by licensed nursing staff.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculin skin test (TST). Which area of the body is the preferred site for this injection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The inner forearm is the preferred site for administering a tuberculin skin test (TST) due to its easy accessibility, minimal hair interference, and good visibility of the injection site, allowing for accurate interpretation of the test results. The deltoid muscle, abdomen, and thigh are not preferred sites for a TST as they may not provide the optimal conditions required for the test. The deltoid muscle is commonly used for intramuscular injections, the abdomen may have varying subcutaneous fat thickness affecting the test, and the thigh may not provide the necessary visibility for accurate reading.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is assessing a client with hyperkalemia. Which finding is consistent with this electrolyte imbalance?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Muscle weakness is a common finding in clients with hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia can lead to muscle weakness due to the effect of high potassium levels on muscle function. Decreased deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are not typically associated with hyperkalemia; instead, hyperreflexia or increased reflexes may be observed. Constipation (Choice C) is not a common symptom of hyperkalemia. Hypotension (Choice D) is also not a typical finding in hyperkalemia; instead, hypertension or normal blood pressure may be present.
Question 8 of 9
When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.
Question 9 of 9
A client with a diagnosis of chronic heart failure is receiving digoxin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide is to monitor pulse rate daily before taking the medication. Digoxin can lead to bradycardia, so it is crucial to assess the pulse rate before administering the medication. This practice helps ensure that the heart rate is not too low for the safe use of digoxin. Choice A is incorrect as there is no specific requirement to take digoxin with a high-fiber meal. Choice C is also incorrect because there is no need to avoid dairy products while on digoxin. Choice D is incorrect since blurred vision is not a common side effect of digoxin; hence, it is not the most critical instruction to provide.