A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Questions 44

HESI LPN

HESI LPN Test Bank

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.

Question 2 of 5

A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed adalimumab. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of infection. Adalimumab is known to increase the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Patients on adalimumab should be closely monitored for signs and symptoms of infection, such as fever, chills, and malaise, and should promptly report any such symptoms to their healthcare provider for further evaluation and management. Monitoring for infection is crucial to prevent serious complications in patients receiving adalimumab therapy.

Question 3 of 5

A client with hypertension is prescribed atenolol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Bradycardia. Atenolol is a beta-blocker commonly used to treat hypertension. Beta-blockers work by blocking the effects of adrenaline on the heart, leading to a reduction in heart rate. Therefore, monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can be a potential side effect of atenolol. Option B) Tachycardia is incorrect because atenolol, as a beta-blocker, typically slows down the heart rate rather than increasing it. Option C) Dry mouth is not a common side effect of atenolol. Dry mouth is more commonly associated with anticholinergic medications. Option D) Hypotension is a possible side effect of atenolol due to its blood pressure-lowering effects, but bradycardia is a more specific side effect associated with beta-blockers like atenolol. Educationally, understanding the side effects of different medication classes is vital for nurses to provide safe and effective care to patients. Knowing the expected side effects helps nurses anticipate and monitor for these reactions, ensuring timely intervention and preventing potential complications.

Question 4 of 5

A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential side effect. Olanzapine is known to cause metabolic changes that can lead to weight gain, making it crucial for the nurse to closely monitor the client's weight during treatment. This side effect is significant as it can impact the client's overall health and well-being, so early detection and intervention are essential to manage it effectively.

Question 5 of 5

A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia as the potential side effect. Sevelamer is a phosphate binder commonly used in patients with chronic kidney disease to lower phosphate levels. By binding to phosphate in the gut, sevelamer reduces phosphate absorption, which can lead to decreased serum phosphate levels. Since phosphate and calcium have an inverse relationship, lower phosphate levels can result in hypocalcemia due to decreased calcium absorption. The other options are incorrect because: - A) Hypercalcemia: Sevelamer is not associated with causing hypercalcemia. In fact, it more commonly leads to lower calcium levels. - C) Hyperkalemia: Sevelamer primarily affects phosphate and calcium levels, not potassium levels. - D) Hypokalemia: Sevelamer does not have a direct impact on potassium levels, so hypokalemia is not a typical side effect of this medication. In an educational context, understanding the potential side effects of medications used in chronic kidney disease is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to provide safe and effective care to their patients. By knowing the expected effects of medications like sevelamer, healthcare professionals can monitor for and manage potential complications, ensuring optimal patient outcomes.

Access More Questions!

HESI LPN Basic


$89/ 30 days

HESI LPN Premium


$150/ 90 days

Similar Questions