A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?

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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and diabetes management, the correct answer is A) 5-10 minutes before meals for administering insulin lispro. Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that is designed to mimic the body's natural insulin response to meals. By administering it 5-10 minutes before meals, the client can ensure that the insulin is available to manage the rise in blood sugar that occurs after eating. Option B) 15 minutes after meals is incorrect because insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered prior to meals to effectively control postprandial blood sugar levels. Waiting until after meals could result in inadequate control of blood sugar levels. Option C) 30 minutes before meals is incorrect as it is too early for the onset of action of insulin lispro, which peaks around 30-90 minutes after administration. Administering it 30 minutes before meals may lead to hypoglycemia as the insulin's action may peak before the rise in blood sugar from the meal. Option D) 1 hour after meals is also incorrect because insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that is meant to be administered before meals to coincide with the postprandial rise in blood sugar levels. Waiting until 1 hour after meals would not effectively manage blood sugar levels in a timely manner. Educationally, understanding the timing of insulin administration in relation to meals is crucial for nurses caring for clients with diabetes. Teaching clients the appropriate timing of insulin administration can help them achieve better glycemic control and reduce the risk of complications associated with diabetes. It is important for nurses to educate clients on the action of different types of insulin to ensure safe and effective diabetes management.

Question 2 of 5

A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed lorazepam. The client should be informed that this medication may have which potential side effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Drowsiness. Lorazepam, a medication commonly used to treat anxiety disorders, can lead to drowsiness as a common side effect. It is important for clients to be aware of this potential effect, and they should be advised to avoid activities like driving until they understand how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are possible side effects of other medications but are less commonly associated with lorazepam.

Question 3 of 5

A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by decreasing the blood's ability to clot. One of the significant side effects of apixaban is an increased risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in the urine or stool, or unusual bleeding or bruising. Monitoring for these signs is crucial to prevent or manage any potential complications associated with the medication.

Question 4 of 5

A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to treat atrial fibrillation by slowing down the heart rate and reducing blood pressure. Hypotension is a potential side effect because diltiazem causes vasodilation, leading to a decrease in blood pressure. Monitoring for hypotension is crucial to prevent complications such as dizziness, falls, or decreased perfusion to vital organs. Option B) Tachycardia is incorrect because diltiazem works by slowing down the heart rate, so tachycardia would not be an expected side effect. Option C) Headache is less likely to be a direct side effect of diltiazem and is not commonly associated with its use. Option D) Hyperglycemia is not a typical side effect of diltiazem. In fact, calcium channel blockers like diltiazem are often preferred in patients with diabetes because they do not tend to raise blood glucose levels. In an educational context, understanding the side effects of medications is crucial for safe and effective nursing practice. Nurses must be able to anticipate, recognize, and manage potential side effects to ensure patient safety and well-being. Regular monitoring and assessment are essential to detect and address any adverse reactions promptly.

Question 5 of 5

A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed semaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Semaglutide, a medication used to treat type 2 diabetes, is known to cause nausea as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for gastrointestinal symptoms, including nausea, after initiating treatment with semaglutide. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are common concerns in diabetes management, they are not the primary adverse effects associated with semaglutide. Pancreatitis is a serious but rare adverse effect of GLP-1 receptor agonists like semaglutide, which should also be monitored for, but nausea is a more common and immediate concern.

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