HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.
Question 2 of 9
A client who had a radical neck dissection returns to the surgical unit with 2 JP drains in the right side of the incision. One JP tube is open and has minimal drainage. Which action should the nurse take to increase drainage into the JP?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Compressing the bulb with the tab open creates suction, which helps increase drainage into the JP drain. This action can aid in removing accumulated fluids from the surgical site. Reinforcing the incisional dressings and assessing behind the neck for drainage (Choice A) is not directly related to increasing drainage into the JP. Placing the client in a right lateral side-lying position and elevating the head of the bed (Choice B) may not directly impact drainage into the JP drain. Irrigating the JP tubing with 1 ml NSS and then closing the opening with its tab (Choice C) is unnecessary and could introduce contaminants into the drain.
Question 3 of 9
When caring for a 7-week-old infant with hypothyroidism, the nurse explains that the prevention of what complication is dependent on the administration of oral thyroid replacement therapy and is critical for the child?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Cognitive impairment. The treatment of choice for congenital and acquired hypothyroidism is oral thyroid hormone replacement therapy. Prompt treatment is especially critical in the infant with congenital hypothyroidism to avoid permanent cognitive impairment. Excessive growth (Choice A) is not a common complication of hypothyroidism in infants. Damage to the nervous system (Choice C) and damage to the urinary system (Choice D) are not typically associated with untreated hypothyroidism in infants.
Question 4 of 9
A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.
Question 5 of 9
A client who was discharged 8 months ago with cirrhosis and ascites is admitted with anorexia and recent hemoptysis. The client is drowsy but responds to verbal stimuli. The nurse programs a blood pressure monitor to take readings every 15 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of cirrhosis and ascites presenting with anorexia and recent hemoptysis, palpating the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity is crucial as it helps in identifying signs of complications related to these conditions. Assessing for abdominal tenderness and rigidity can provide valuable information about the presence of internal bleeding, ascites complications, or liver enlargement. Evaluating distal capillary refill, checking for bruising and petechiae, or examining peritibial regions for pitting edema are important assessments but are not the priority in this case, given the client's history and current symptoms.
Question 6 of 9
A male client tells the nurse that he is experiencing burning on urination, and assessment reveals that he had sexual intercourse four days ago with a woman he casually met. Which action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate action for the nurse to take is to obtain a specimen of urethral drainage for culture. This procedure can help diagnose the cause of burning on urination, which could be indicative of a sexually transmitted infection. Option A, observing for a chancroid-like lesion, may not be the most immediate or relevant action in this case. Option C, assessing for perineal itching, erythema, and excoriation, is important but obtaining a culture specimen would provide more specific diagnostic information. Option D, identifying all sexual partners, is relevant for contact tracing but obtaining a culture specimen is the priority to determine the current infection status.
Question 7 of 9
Which signs/symptoms would be considered classical signs of meningeal irritation?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Positive Brudzinski sign, positive Kernig sign, and photophobia are considered classical signs of meningeal irritation. The Kernig sign is positive when the leg is extended at the knee and then raised, resulting in pain and resistance. The Brudzinski sign is positive when flexing the neck causes flexion of the hips and knees due to meningeal irritation. Photophobia, or sensitivity to light, is a common symptom due to meningeal inflammation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not include the classic signs associated with meningeal irritation.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carotid bruit. A carotid bruit is a significant risk factor for stroke as it indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowing of the carotid artery. Nuchal rigidity is associated with meningitis, jugular vein distention can be a sign of heart failure, and palpable cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection, but they are not directly linked to stroke risk.
Question 9 of 9
A client with a history of asthma and bronchitis arrives at the clinic with shortness of breath, productive cough with thickening mucus, and the inability to walk up a flight of stairs without experiencing breathlessness. Which action is most important for the nurse to instruct the client about self-care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Increasing fluid intake is crucial as it helps to thin mucus secretions, making them easier to expectorate. This can alleviate the client's symptoms of shortness of breath and productive cough. Option B is not the most important action in this scenario, as it does not directly address the client's respiratory distress. Option C, while important, focuses on medication side effects rather than addressing the immediate breathing difficulties. Option D, teaching anxiety reduction methods, is not the priority when the client's main concern is respiratory distress.