HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with chronic kidney disease is receiving epoetin alfa (Epogen). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to determine the effectiveness of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hemoglobin. Monitoring hemoglobin levels is essential to assess the effectiveness of epoetin alfa in clients with chronic kidney disease. Epoetin alfa is a medication that stimulates red blood cell production, aiming to increase hemoglobin levels and improve symptoms of anemia in these patients. Monitoring serum potassium (Choice A) is important in clients with kidney disease, but it is more related to assessing electrolyte balance rather than the direct effectiveness of epoetin alfa. Serum creatinine (Choice C) and blood urea nitrogen (Choice D) are kidney function tests that help evaluate kidney health but do not specifically reflect the effectiveness of epoetin alfa therapy.
Question 2 of 9
A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the LPN/LVN include in this client's teaching plan?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client who had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip is to 'Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.' This technique helps maintain proper hip alignment and prevents dislocation during the postoperative recovery period. Choice A is incorrect because bending at the waist to reach items on the floor can strain the hip joint and is not recommended following hip surgery. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker alone without assistance can increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in the immediate postoperative period. Choice D is incorrect because pain medication should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not specifically timed after physical therapy sessions.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse at a provider's office is discussing routine screenings with a 45-year-old female client who has no specific family history of cancer or diabetes mellitus. Which of the following client statements indicates that the client understands how to proceed?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Mammograms are recommended annually for women starting at age 40 or 45. This statement aligns with current guidelines for breast cancer screening in women without specific risk factors. Choice A is incorrect because colon cancer screenings are typically recommended at different intervals. Choice C is incorrect as Pap smears are usually done every 3-5 years based on age and risk factors. Choice D is incorrect because glucose testing is usually recommended more frequently, especially for individuals at risk for diabetes mellitus.
Question 4 of 9
During the stages of dying, a client reaches the point of acceptance. What response should the LPN/LVN expect the client to exhibit?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: During the stages of dying, when a client reaches the point of acceptance, the expected response is 'Detachment.' This is characterized by the individual withdrawing emotionally and psychologically from their surroundings as they come to terms with their impending death. Apathy (Choice A) refers to a lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern, which is not typically associated with the acceptance stage. Euphoria (Choice B) is an intense feeling of happiness or excitement, which is less likely during the acceptance stage of dying. Emotionalism (Choice D) involves exaggerated or uncontrollable emotional reactions, which are not commonly seen during the acceptance phase.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is caring for a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first when using the nursing process?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Obtain client information. The first step in the nursing process is assessment, which involves gathering data about the client's condition, needs, and preferences. This information forms the foundation for developing a comprehensive plan of care. Developing a plan of care (Choice B) comes after assessment to address the identified needs. Implementing nursing interventions (Choice C) follows the development of the plan of care. Evaluating the client's response to treatment (Choice D) occurs after implementing the interventions to determine the effectiveness of the care provided. Therefore, the initial and priority step is to obtain client information through assessment.
Question 6 of 9
A parent is reviewing safety measures for an 8-month-old infant with a nurse. Which of the following statements by the parent indicates an understanding of safety for the infant?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because removing the crib gym prevents potential safety hazards such as choking or entrapment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they pose risks to the infant's safety. A firm mattress is recommended for infants to reduce the risk of suffocation. Soft mattresses and fluffy pillows increase the risk of suffocation and Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Placing the baby's car seat on a table can lead to falls or other accidents.
Question 7 of 9
When assessing a client reporting increased pain after physical therapy, which question should the nurse ask to evaluate the quality of the pain?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct question to ask when assessing the quality of a client's pain is whether the pain is sharp or dull. This helps in understanding the characteristics of the pain being experienced. Choice B, asking if the pain radiates to other areas, focuses more on pain distribution rather than quality. Choice C, inquiring if the pain increases with movement, pertains to aggravating factors rather than pain quality. Choice D, requesting the client to rate pain on a scale of 1 to 10, is related to pain intensity rather than quality.
Question 8 of 9
A young adult client is receiving instruction from a healthcare provider about health promotion and illness prevention. Which of the following statements indicates understanding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scheduling routine health care visits, even when feeling well, is crucial for early detection and prevention of health issues. This proactive approach allows healthcare providers to monitor overall health, provide preventive care, and address any emerging health concerns promptly. Choice A is incorrect because past immunizations do not cover all potential diseases; regular check-ups are still necessary. Choice C is incorrect as urgent care centers are not designed for routine medical care. Choice D is incorrect as seeking help for stress is important for mental well-being and should not be dismissed as a normal part of life.
Question 9 of 9
A client who is terminally ill has a family member who is coping effectively with the situation. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication of effective coping?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an effective coping strategy involves mutual support and communication within the family. This statement reflects effective coping skills as the family is shown to be helping each other through the difficult time. Choice A is incorrect as maintaining hope does not necessarily indicate effective coping. Choice C focuses on future events and may not address the current situation of coping with a terminally ill family member. Choice D avoids discussing important aspects of end-of-life planning, which may not reflect effective coping with the situation at hand.