HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed calcium acetate, the nurse must monitor for hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia, hyperkalemia, or hypokalemia. Calcium acetate can increase calcium levels in the blood, leading to hypercalcemia. Symptoms of hypercalcemia include fatigue, confusion, constipation, and muscle weakness. Regular monitoring of calcium levels is crucial to prevent complications associated with elevated calcium levels.
Question 2 of 9
A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed escitalopram. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is crucial for clients to understand that they should not discontinue escitalopram abruptly, even if they start feeling better. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms or a relapse of depression. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed by the healthcare provider to ensure the best outcomes and prevent potential complications.
Question 3 of 9
The healthcare provider has prescribed an influenza vaccine for a 74-year-old client before discharge. Which client condition would prompt the practical nurse to consult with the charge nurse rather than administer the vaccine?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of an egg allergy. The influenza vaccine may contain a small amount of egg protein. According to the CDC, individuals with a severe allergy to any component of the vaccine, including egg protein, should not receive the influenza vaccine. Therefore, if the client has a history of an allergy to eggs, the practical nurse should not administer the vaccine and consult with the charge nurse for further guidance, as it is a contraindication. The other conditions listed do not require consultation before administering the influenza vaccine.
Question 4 of 9
A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.
Question 5 of 9
An older adult with iron deficiency anemia is being discharged with iron supplements, which information should the nurse include in the discharge?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to wait 2 hours after meals before taking the iron tablet. This is important to ensure better absorption and efficacy of the iron supplement. Taking the tablet with a daily multivitamin (Choice A) may interfere with iron absorption due to interactions with other minerals. Crushing the tablet and mixing it with pudding (Choice B) can alter the effectiveness of the medication. While bedtime (Choice C) may be convenient, waiting after meals is crucial for optimal iron absorption.
Question 6 of 9
When a client with hypertension is prescribed losartan, what potential side effect should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry cough. Losartan, an angiotensin II receptor blocker, can lead to a dry cough as a potential side effect. This occurs due to the drug's effect on the bradykinin pathway in the lungs. Monitoring for a dry cough is essential as it may indicate the need for further evaluation or medication adjustment to manage this adverse reaction.
Question 7 of 9
A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, liver toxicity. Pioglitazone is known to cause liver toxicity, so it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's liver function while on this medication. Monitoring liver function tests can help detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent serious complications.
Question 8 of 9
A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, which can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, causing hyperkalemia. This medication inhibits the action of aldosterone, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential retention. Monitoring potassium levels is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias, especially in clients with heart failure.
Question 9 of 9
A client with chronic heart failure is prescribed spironolactone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to an excess of potassium in the body, resulting in hyperkalemia. This side effect is important to monitor in clients taking spironolactone, especially those with chronic heart failure, as hyperkalemia can lead to serious cardiac complications.