A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In pharmacological education, it is crucial to understand the rationale behind medication instructions to ensure safe and effective patient care. In this scenario, the correct answer is C) Do not stop taking this medication abruptly. This instruction is essential because alprazolam is a benzodiazepine, and abrupt discontinuation can lead to withdrawal symptoms, including rebound anxiety, insomnia, tremors, and seizures. Educating the client on the importance of gradual tapering under medical supervision is vital to prevent these adverse effects. Option A) Take this medication with food is incorrect because alprazolam can be taken with or without food, and food does not significantly impact its absorption. Option B) Avoid activities that require alertness is not directly related to alprazolam use. While drowsiness can be a side effect, it does not mandate a blanket restriction on all activities requiring alertness. Option D) This medication may cause drowsiness is a common side effect of alprazolam, but it is not the most critical instruction for this medication. It is essential to address the risk of abrupt withdrawal first to ensure patient safety. By understanding the rationale behind each instruction, nursing students can provide comprehensive patient education and contribute to safe medication management practices in clinical settings.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and asthma management, it is crucial to understand the proper timing of medication administration for optimal therapeutic effects. In the case of fluticasone, a corticosteroid inhaler commonly used in asthma management, the correct answer is C) Once a day. The rationale behind this correct answer lies in the pharmacokinetics of fluticasone. Fluticasone is a long-acting medication that provides sustained anti-inflammatory effects in the airways. By using it once a day, the client can benefit from consistent protection against asthma symptoms and exacerbations over a 24-hour period. Now, let's analyze why the other options are incorrect: - Option A) During an asthma attack: Using fluticasone only during an asthma attack would not provide the necessary daily maintenance therapy needed to control inflammation and prevent future attacks. - Option B) Twice a day: While some medications may require twice-daily dosing, fluticasone's prolonged action allows for once-daily administration, simplifying the medication regimen and improving adherence. - Option D) At night before bed: While consistency in timing is important, using fluticasone only at night may not provide adequate coverage during the day when asthma symptoms are more likely to occur. In an educational context, understanding the rationale behind medication timing is essential for nursing students and healthcare professionals to optimize patient outcomes. By grasping the pharmacokinetics and therapeutic effects of medications like fluticasone, nurses can provide accurate and evidence-based patient education on proper medication administration for chronic conditions like asthma.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Question: When a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects. The correct answer is dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. This side effect can impact the patient's oral health and comfort, requiring close monitoring and appropriate interventions.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Peripheral edema. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to manage hypertension. Peripheral edema is a potential adverse effect of amlodipine due to its vasodilatory properties, resulting in fluid accumulation in the extremities. Option B) Tachycardia is incorrect because amlodipine actually works to lower heart rate by reducing the workload of the heart through vasodilation. Option C) Bradycardia is also incorrect as amlodipine does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Option D) Increased appetite is not a common adverse effect associated with amlodipine. Educationally, it is crucial for nurses to be aware of the common adverse effects of medications to monitor patients effectively and intervene promptly if needed. Understanding the pharmacological actions of medications helps nurses anticipate potential side effects and provide comprehensive care to their patients.