HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Report any signs of a sore throat or fever immediately.' Phenytoin can cause blood dyscrasias, which can manifest as a sore throat or fever. These symptoms could indicate a serious side effect that requires immediate medical attention. Choice B is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because discontinuing phenytoin abruptly can lead to rebound seizures; drowsiness is a common side effect that may improve with time. Choice D is incorrect because adjusting the dosage of phenytoin should only be done under healthcare provider supervision, not based on experiencing an aura.
Question 2 of 5
A client with ulcerative colitis is experiencing frequent diarrhea. What is the priority nursing diagnosis?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Fluid volume deficit. In a client with ulcerative colitis experiencing frequent diarrhea, the priority nursing diagnosis is addressing the potential fluid volume deficit due to significant fluid loss. Maintaining adequate hydration is crucial to prevent complications associated with dehydration. While choices A, C, and D can also be concerns for a client with ulcerative colitis, addressing fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it directly impacts the client's physiological stability and can lead to serious complications if not managed promptly.
Question 3 of 5
A male client with muscular dystrophy fell in his home and is admitted with a right hip fracture. His right foot is cool, with palpable pedal pulses. Lungs are coarse with diminished bibasilar breath sounds. Vital signs are temperature 101 degrees F, heart rate 128 beats/minute, respirations 28 breaths/minute, and blood pressure 122/82. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Administering an antipyretic is the most important intervention. The client presents with an elevated temperature, tachycardia, and tachypnea, indicating a fever. Lowering the temperature with an antipyretic is crucial to prevent complications like dehydration, altered mental status, and increased oxygen demand. While assessing lower extremity circulation and oxygen saturation are important, addressing the elevated temperature takes priority in this scenario. Incentive spirometry may be beneficial but is not the priority compared to managing the fever.
Question 4 of 5
The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carotid bruit. A carotid bruit is a significant risk factor for stroke as it indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowing of the carotid artery. Nuchal rigidity is associated with meningitis, jugular vein distention can be a sign of heart failure, and palpable cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection, but they are not directly linked to stroke risk.
Question 5 of 5
A client who has a history of unstable angina is admitted to the emergency department with chest pain.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Chest pain unrelieved after taking 3 sequential nitroglycerin tablets indicates a possible myocardial infarction and requires immediate medical attention.
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