HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lithium. Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Lithium can affect sodium levels in the body, potentially leading to hyponatremia, which is a condition characterized by low sodium levels. This imbalance requires close monitoring as it can lead to symptoms such as confusion, weakness, and even seizures. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because lithium is not primarily associated with causing hypokalemia, hypercalcemia, or hypernatremia. While these imbalances can occur in certain conditions or with other medications, the main electrolyte imbalance to monitor when a client is prescribed lithium is hyponatremia.
Question 3 of 5
The nurse is caring for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. What time of day is best for the nurse to schedule physical exercises with the physical therapy department?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Scheduling physical exercises after breakfast is the optimal choice for a client with Myasthenia Gravis. This timing allows the client to benefit from renewed energy levels after overnight rest and intake of morning nourishment, enhancing the effectiveness of the therapy session. Choices A (Before bedtime, at 2000) is not suitable as energy levels are likely lower at night, affecting the client's ability to engage effectively in physical exercises. Choices C (Before the evening meal) and D (After lunch) may not be ideal as the client may experience fatigue or weakness later in the day, making it harder to participate actively in therapy.
Question 4 of 5
The healthcare provider plans to assess a newborn and check the infant's Moro reflex. What is the healthcare provider evaluating?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Moro reflex is an instinctive response observed in newborns, indicating their neurological integrity. This reflex is evaluated by eliciting a startle response in the infant, involving the sudden extension and abduction of the limbs, followed by their retraction. This assessment helps in determining the proper functioning of the infant's nervous system and brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the evaluation of the Moro reflex. Renal functioning pertains to kidney function, thermoregulation refers to temperature control, and respiratory adequacy involves assessing breathing and oxygenation levels, none of which are evaluated through the Moro reflex.
Question 5 of 5
A client is prescribed warfarin for the prevention of thromboembolism. What dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Maintaining a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich foods is important for patients taking warfarin as it helps keep the effects of the medication stable. Choice A is incorrect because while green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, they should not be avoided completely but rather consumed consistently. Choice C is also incorrect as avoiding all foods containing vitamin K can lead to fluctuations in warfarin's effectiveness. Choice D is incorrect as a high-protein diet is not specifically recommended for patients taking warfarin.