A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 5

A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Peripheral edema. Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly used to manage hypertension. Peripheral edema is a potential adverse effect of amlodipine due to its vasodilatory properties, resulting in fluid accumulation in the extremities. Option B) Tachycardia is incorrect because amlodipine actually works to lower heart rate by reducing the workload of the heart through vasodilation. Option C) Bradycardia is also incorrect as amlodipine does not typically cause a decrease in heart rate. Option D) Increased appetite is not a common adverse effect associated with amlodipine. Educationally, it is crucial for nurses to be aware of the common adverse effects of medications to monitor patients effectively and intervene promptly if needed. Understanding the pharmacological actions of medications helps nurses anticipate potential side effects and provide comprehensive care to their patients.

Question 2 of 5

A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed sulfasalazine. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In educating a client with rheumatoid arthritis prescribed sulfasalazine, it is crucial to include the instruction to take this medication with meals. Sulfasalazine is known to commonly cause gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea and stomach upset. Taking it with food helps to minimize these adverse effects by providing a protective barrier for the stomach lining. Option B, avoiding sunlight, is not directly related to sulfasalazine use. While photosensitivity can be a side effect of some medications, it is not a specific concern with sulfasalazine. Option C, reporting signs of infection, is a general instruction for clients on immunosuppressive medications. While important, it is not specific to sulfasalazine. Option D, taking the medication on an empty stomach, is incorrect as sulfasalazine is better tolerated when taken with food, as mentioned earlier. Educationally, understanding the rationale behind medication instructions empowers clients to adhere to their treatment plans effectively and manage potential side effects. Providing clear and accurate information ensures safe and optimal medication use for clients with rheumatoid arthritis.

Question 3 of 5

A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed ziprasidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the case of a client diagnosed with schizophrenia prescribed ziprasidone, the nurse should monitor the client for potential side effects, particularly QT prolongation. Ziprasidone is an atypical antipsychotic known to have the side effect of QT prolongation, which can lead to serious cardiac complications such as arrhythmias. Monitoring the client's ECG for any signs of QT prolongation is crucial to prevent adverse events. Regarding the other options: - Weight gain is a common side effect of many antipsychotic medications, but it is not specifically associated with ziprasidone. - Dry mouth is a common side effect of antipsychotics, but it is not a significant concern compared to QT prolongation in this scenario. - Increased appetite is another common side effect of some antipsychotics, but it is not directly related to ziprasidone. Educationally, understanding the side effect profile of different antipsychotic medications is crucial for nurses and healthcare providers to provide safe and effective care to clients with mental health conditions. Monitoring for specific side effects based on the medication prescribed can help prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.

Question 4 of 5

A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed darbepoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is A) Hypertension. Darbepoetin alfa is a medication commonly prescribed to stimulate red blood cell production in patients with chronic kidney disease. One of the potential side effects of this medication is hypertension due to the increased red blood cell production leading to an elevated blood pressure. Option B) Hypotension is incorrect because darbepoetin alfa is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension. Option C) Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with darbepoetin alfa treatment. Hyperkalemia is an elevated level of potassium in the blood and is more commonly seen in conditions like kidney failure, but not directly related to this medication. Option D) Hyperglycemia is also not a common side effect of darbepoetin alfa. Hyperglycemia refers to high blood sugar levels which are not typically associated with this medication. Educationally, it is important for nurses to understand the side effects of medications commonly used in patients with chronic kidney disease, as these patients are more susceptible to medication-related complications due to impaired renal function. Monitoring for and recognizing potential side effects like hypertension with darbepoetin alfa can help prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.

Question 5 of 5

A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and diabetes management, the correct answer is A) 5-10 minutes before meals for administering insulin lispro. Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that is designed to mimic the body's natural insulin response to meals. By administering it 5-10 minutes before meals, the client can ensure that the insulin is available to manage the rise in blood sugar that occurs after eating. Option B) 15 minutes after meals is incorrect because insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered prior to meals to effectively control postprandial blood sugar levels. Waiting until after meals could result in inadequate control of blood sugar levels. Option C) 30 minutes before meals is incorrect as it is too early for the onset of action of insulin lispro, which peaks around 30-90 minutes after administration. Administering it 30 minutes before meals may lead to hypoglycemia as the insulin's action may peak before the rise in blood sugar from the meal. Option D) 1 hour after meals is also incorrect because insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that is meant to be administered before meals to coincide with the postprandial rise in blood sugar levels. Waiting until 1 hour after meals would not effectively manage blood sugar levels in a timely manner. Educationally, understanding the timing of insulin administration in relation to meals is crucial for nurses caring for clients with diabetes. Teaching clients the appropriate timing of insulin administration can help them achieve better glycemic control and reduce the risk of complications associated with diabetes. It is important for nurses to educate clients on the action of different types of insulin to ensure safe and effective diabetes management.

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