HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with a history of falls is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be to eliminate safety hazards from the client's environment as it directly reduces the risk of falls. Addressing environmental hazards is an immediate and crucial step in preventing falls. While completing a fall-risk assessment is important to understand the client's risk factors, educating the client and family about fall risks is essential for prevention, and ensuring the use of assistive aids is crucial for safety, eliminating safety hazards takes precedence as it directly mitigates the risk of falls.
Question 2 of 9
A client with a history of hypertension is taking a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bradycardia. Beta-blockers are medications that can lower heart rate, leading to bradycardia as a potential side effect. It is essential for the LPN/LVN to monitor for this adverse effect due to the medication's mechanism of action. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blocker use. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to ensure patient safety and to prevent any potential complications.
Question 3 of 9
A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following measures should the professional take to prevent the spread of infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tuberculosis is an airborne infection, and placing a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow helps prevent the spread of the infection by containing the pathogens. This measure is crucial as it prevents the dissemination of TB droplet nuclei to other areas. Choice B, using a disposable gown for contact precautions, is important for preventing the transmission of infections spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, placing a client with MRSA in a private room, is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA through contact with others. Choice D, using a mask for clients with influenza, helps prevent the spread of influenza through respiratory droplets. However, negative pressure airflow is specifically required for airborne infections like TB, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.
Question 4 of 9
If a security officer is reviewing actions to take in the event of a bomb threat by phone to a group of nurses, which statement by a nurse indicates understanding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will listen for background noises." Listening for background noises can provide useful information about the bomb's location, helping security to assess the situation more effectively. Choice A is incorrect because disconnecting the call abruptly may prevent gathering important details. Choice B is incorrect as using elevators during a bomb threat can be dangerous; it is safer to use stairs for evacuation. Choice C is incorrect because actively engaging with the caller to gather information is crucial in bomb threat situations.
Question 5 of 9
The patient refuses a morning bath, stating a preference for evening baths. What is the best action for the nurse to take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The best action for the nurse is to respect the patient's preference and autonomy. By deferring the bath until evening, the nurse acknowledges and accommodates the patient's routine, promoting patient-centered care. Choice B could be seen as dismissive of the patient's preference and may not foster a therapeutic relationship. Choice C, while important, doesn't address the patient's current refusal. Choice D is not respectful of the patient's autonomy and could lead to increased resistance. Therefore, option A is the most appropriate and patient-centered approach.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client who has herpes zoster. The client asks about complementary and alternative therapies for pain control. The nurse should inform the client that this condition is a contraindication for which of the following therapies?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Acupuncture. Acupuncture is contraindicated for clients with herpes zoster due to the risk of infection at the needle sites. In individuals with herpes zoster, the skin's integrity is compromised, increasing susceptibility to infections. Therefore, acupuncture, which involves inserting needles into the skin, can introduce pathogens and lead to local infections. Massage therapy (B), aromatherapy (C), and herbal supplements (D) do not involve skin penetration like acupuncture and are generally considered safe complementary therapies for pain control in clients with herpes zoster.
Question 7 of 9
A client with a history of asthma is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Administering a bronchodilator as prescribed is the most appropriate initial action for managing asthma-related shortness of breath. Bronchodilators help to open up the airways quickly, providing relief for the client. Encouraging deep breathing exercises may be beneficial in some situations but should not be the first action for acute shortness of breath in asthma. Positioning the client in high Fowler's position can also help improve breathing, but administering the bronchodilator takes precedence. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important in asthma management, but it is not the initial action needed to address acute shortness of breath.
Question 8 of 9
During preoperative teaching, a client in a surgeon's office expresses intent to prepare advance directives before surgery. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of advance directives?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. This statement reflects the client's understanding of advance directives, as it indicates a specific preference regarding life-sustaining treatment. Advance directives enable individuals to outline their healthcare preferences, including decisions about treatments they wish to receive or avoid. Choice A mentions family members but doesn't address specific healthcare wishes; choice B focuses on the surgery rather than personal directives; choice D discusses doctor approval but lacks details about the directive itself.
Question 9 of 9
During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client's pulse deficit (per minute)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.