HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with a history of falls is under the care of a nurse. Which of the following actions should be the nurse's priority?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse's priority should be to eliminate safety hazards from the client's environment as it directly reduces the risk of falls. Addressing environmental hazards is an immediate and crucial step in preventing falls. While completing a fall-risk assessment is important to understand the client's risk factors, educating the client and family about fall risks is essential for prevention, and ensuring the use of assistive aids is crucial for safety, eliminating safety hazards takes precedence as it directly mitigates the risk of falls.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The Institute for Safe Medication Practices recommends using the complete medication name magnesium sulfate when documenting medications to prevent misinterpretation. Choice B is incorrect because spaces should be maintained between the numerical dose and unit of measure for clarity. Choice C is incorrect as the standard notation for insulin dosage is in units, not using the letter U. Choice D is incorrect as the abbreviation for subcutaneous injection is commonly written as 'subcut' or 'subcutaneous,' not as SC.
Question 3 of 9
The healthcare provider is preparing a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Which of the following would be necessary for preparing the client for this test?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: No special preparation is required for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option A is incorrect because there is no need for the client to be NPO (nothing by mouth) before this test. Option B is incorrect as sedative medication is not typically administered for a Venous Doppler evaluation. Option C is incorrect as discontinuing anticoagulant therapy before the test may not be safe for a client with DVT, as it could increase the risk of developing a blood clot. Therefore, the correct answer is D.
Question 4 of 9
Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.
Question 5 of 9
A client is scheduled for an appendectomy and has given informed consent. Which statement by the client should the nurse address first preoperatively?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should address the client's lack of understanding regarding the need for surgery first. Ensuring that the client comprehends the rationale for the procedure is essential for informed consent. Choices A, C, and D, while important, do not directly impact the client's understanding of the necessity of the surgery and can be addressed after clarifying the reason for the procedure.
Question 6 of 9
A client is receiving teaching from a healthcare provider about reducing the adverse effects of immobility. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is correct because performing ankle and knee exercises every hour helps prevent contractures and other adverse effects of immobility. Contractures are a common complication of immobility, and range of motion (ROM) exercises can help maintain joint flexibility and prevent contractures. This statement indicates an understanding of the teaching provided by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Holding the breath when rising from a sitting position can increase the risk of orthostatic hypotension, not reduce adverse effects of immobility. Removing antiembolic stockings while in bed can compromise their effectiveness in preventing deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is not a measure to reduce immobility-related complications. Having a partner help change positions every 4 hours may not be frequent enough to prevent immobility-related complications effectively; changing positions more frequently is usually recommended to prevent issues like pressure ulcers and muscle stiffness.
Question 7 of 9
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, respiratory distress is the most concerning finding as it can indicate progression to respiratory failure, which is a life-threatening complication. Loss of reflexes in the legs and muscle weakness in the arms are common manifestations of the condition but may not be as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Decreased peripheral sensation is also a common symptom but is not as critical as respiratory distress in terms of immediate patient safety and management.
Question 8 of 9
The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following measures should the professional take to prevent the spread of infection?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Tuberculosis is an airborne infection, and placing a client with TB in a room with negative pressure airflow helps prevent the spread of the infection by containing the pathogens. This measure is crucial as it prevents the dissemination of TB droplet nuclei to other areas. Choice B, using a disposable gown for contact precautions, is important for preventing the transmission of infections spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice C, placing a client with MRSA in a private room, is essential to prevent the spread of MRSA through contact with others. Choice D, using a mask for clients with influenza, helps prevent the spread of influenza through respiratory droplets. However, negative pressure airflow is specifically required for airborne infections like TB, making it the most appropriate choice in this scenario.