HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed edoxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Edoxaban is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting clot formation, thereby increasing the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as bruising, petechiae, hematuria, or gastrointestinal bleeding, to prevent potential complications.
Question 2 of 5
A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed topiramate. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the case of a client with bipolar disorder prescribed topiramate, monitoring for cognitive impairment is crucial due to the potential adverse effects of the medication. Topiramate is known to affect cognitive function in some individuals, leading to issues such as memory problems, confusion, and difficulty concentrating. This is why option A is the correct answer. Regarding why the other options are incorrect: - Option B (Weight gain): While weight gain can be a side effect of some medications used to treat bipolar disorder, it is not a common adverse effect of topiramate. - Option C (Liver toxicity): Although monitoring liver function is important when taking certain medications, liver toxicity is not a typical adverse effect associated with topiramate. - Option D (Weight gain): This option is a duplicate and does not provide a distinct alternative to the correct answer. From an educational perspective, understanding the potential adverse effects of medications used in treating mental health conditions like bipolar disorder is essential for nurses and healthcare professionals. Monitoring for cognitive impairment in this case helps ensure the client's safety and well-being while receiving treatment. This knowledge enhances the quality of care provided to individuals with bipolar disorder and contributes to better outcomes.
Question 3 of 5
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed dulaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nausea.' Dulaglutide, a medication commonly used in the management of type 2 diabetes, can lead to gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are potential concerns in diabetes management, they are not typically associated with dulaglutide use. Pancreatitis is a serious adverse effect of some diabetes medications, but it is not a common side effect of dulaglutide.
Question 4 of 5
The patient is prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. What should the nurse consider about administering this drug?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the administration of drugs is crucial for their effectiveness. In the case of cimetidine (Tagamet), the correct option is D) Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals. This is because cimetidine works best when the stomach is in the fasting state, allowing for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. By administering cimetidine before meals, the drug has time to be absorbed and reach therapeutic levels before food intake interferes with its absorption. Option A) Administer the drug with the first bite of food is incorrect because cimetidine should be taken before meals to ensure adequate absorption. Administering it with food may decrease its effectiveness. Option B) Administer the drug immediately after meals is incorrect because cimetidine needs time to be absorbed without interference from food intake, so administering it immediately after meals would not allow for optimal absorption. Option C) Administer the drug 30 minutes after meals is incorrect because this timing does not align with the optimal absorption requirements of cimetidine. Waiting until after meals could reduce the drug's effectiveness. Understanding the timing of drug administration is essential for nurses to ensure the therapeutic effects of medications. Educating healthcare professionals on the rationale behind specific drug administration protocols is crucial for safe and effective patient care.
Question 5 of 5
What class of laxative would the nurse recommend to a patient asking about the best way to prevent constipation?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In the context of pharmacology and constipation management, the nurse would recommend bulk-forming laxatives (Option B) to prevent constipation to a patient. Bulk-forming laxatives work by increasing the bulk and water content of the stool, which promotes peristalsis and eases defecation. They are considered the safest and most natural way to relieve constipation, as they mimic the action of dietary fiber. Stimulant laxatives (Option A) work by directly stimulating the intestinal lining, which can lead to dependence and should not be used as a first-line treatment for constipation due to their potential side effects. Emollient laxatives (Option C), also known as stool softeners, work by allowing more water to be absorbed into the stool, making it easier to pass. However, they are not typically recommended for preventing constipation but rather for managing it once it occurs. Hyperosmotic laxatives (Option D) work by drawing water into the colon, softening the stool and promoting bowel movements. While they are effective for treating constipation, they are not usually the first choice for prevention due to their mechanism of action. Educationally, understanding the different classes of laxatives and their mechanisms of action is crucial for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when recommending treatments to patients. It is essential to consider the patient's specific needs, medical history, and potential side effects of each type of laxative when determining the most appropriate treatment for constipation.