HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.
Question 2 of 9
Who was the first Filipino nurse supervisor appointed in the Bureau of Health in 1919?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Mrs. Anastacio Giron-Tupas, who was the first Filipino nurse supervisor appointed in the Bureau of Health in 1919. Ms. Carmen del Rosario, Mrs. Genara de Guzman, and Mrs. Annie Sand were not the first Filipino nurse supervisors appointed to this position. Therefore, they are incorrect choices.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse is evaluating the growth and development of a toddler with AIDS. The nurse would anticipate finding that the child has
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Children with AIDS often experience delays in achieving developmental milestones, affecting their overall growth and development. This delay can impact various areas of development, not limited to a specific aspect like musculoskeletal or speech development. While some children may achieve milestones at varying rates (choice A), the general trend is a delay in multiple milestones (choice D). Musculoskeletal development (choice B) and speech development (choice C) may be affected but are not as comprehensive as the delay in most developmental milestones.
Question 4 of 9
A community health nurse is planning a health promotion campaign. What should be the first step?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first step in planning a health promotion campaign is to assess the needs of the community. By understanding the community's specific health needs, preferences, and resources, the nurse can tailor the campaign effectively. Developing educational materials (choice A) should come after assessing needs to ensure relevance. Implementing interventions (choice C) and evaluating outcomes (choice D) should also follow the assessment phase to measure the impact of the campaign accurately.
Question 5 of 9
When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.
Question 6 of 9
An activity designed to diagnose and treat a disease or condition in its earliest stages, before it becomes full-blown, would be classified as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, secondary prevention. Secondary prevention focuses on early diagnosis and intervention to prevent the progression of a disease or condition. This involves detecting and treating the illness in its early stages to reduce its impact. Choice A, primary prevention, aims to prevent the development of a disease or injury before it occurs by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and improving the quality of life of individuals with established conditions to prevent complications and further deterioration. Choice D, health education, refers to providing information and promoting awareness about health issues to enable individuals to make informed decisions and adopt healthy behaviors.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is preparing to administer a tuberculosis (TB) test to a client. Which of the following is the correct method for administering this test?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct method for administering a tuberculosis (TB) test is through an intradermal injection on the forearm. This technique allows for the proper administration of the test under the skin to assess the body's response to the TB antigen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the TB test specifically requires an intradermal injection, not subcutaneous, intramuscular, or oral administration.
Question 8 of 9
To individualize care for a client and ensure maximum participation in that care, what should the nurse consider as the most important factor in planning the said care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: health beliefs and practices. Health beliefs and practices directly influence a client's willingness and ability to participate in care. Understanding a client's health beliefs and practices helps the nurse tailor the care plan to align with the client's values and preferences. Choice A, environment, though important, may not be the most critical factor in individualizing care. Choice B, educational attainment, is relevant but not as significant as understanding the client's health beliefs and practices. Choice D, health status, is essential but does not address the individualization of care and maximizing participation as directly as health beliefs and practices.
Question 9 of 9
The nurse is teaching a community group about risks of cardiovascular disease. Several clients ask the nurse to determine their risk. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A male with a high LDL level (200 mg/dl) has a significant risk for cardiovascular disease. High levels of LDL cholesterol are associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and heart disease. Choices A, B, and D have serum cholesterol levels that are slightly elevated but are not as specific or directly linked to cardiovascular risk as high LDL levels. Therefore, the client with the high LDL level is at the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease.