HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.
Question 2 of 9
A pre-term baby develops nasal flaring, cyanosis, and diminished breath sounds on one side. The provider's diagnosis is spontaneous pneumothorax. Which procedure should the nurse prepare for first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insertion of a chest tube. In a case of spontaneous pneumothorax, the primary intervention is to insert a chest tube. This procedure allows the trapped air to escape from the pleural space, relieving pressure and enabling the lung to re-expand. Choices A, C, and D are not the initial interventions for spontaneous pneumothorax. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is indicated for cardiac arrest, oxygen therapy may provide supportive care but does not address the underlying issue of trapped air in the pleural space, and assisted ventilation may be needed later but is not the first-line treatment for a pneumothorax.
Question 3 of 9
The healthcare provider is screening children at a local community health clinic for infectious diseases. Which child is at the highest risk for hepatitis B virus?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Newborns are at the highest risk for hepatitis B virus due to potential transmission from the mother. The hepatitis B virus can be transmitted from an infected mother to her baby during childbirth. Children born to mothers infected with hepatitis B are at the highest risk of acquiring the infection. Choices B, C, and D are at lower risk compared to a newborn as they are less likely to have been exposed to the virus during childbirth.
Question 4 of 9
A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.
Question 5 of 9
Which ethnic group has the highest risk for diabetes?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Native Americans have the highest risk for diabetes compared to other ethnic groups. This is due to genetic predisposition, lifestyle factors, and limited access to healthcare. African Americans, Hispanic Americans, and Asian Americans also have an increased risk of developing diabetes, but statistically, Native Americans have the highest prevalence of the disease. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are incorrect.
Question 6 of 9
An activity designed to diagnose and treat a disease or condition in its earliest stages, before it becomes full-blown, would be classified as:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, secondary prevention. Secondary prevention focuses on early diagnosis and intervention to prevent the progression of a disease or condition. This involves detecting and treating the illness in its early stages to reduce its impact. Choice A, primary prevention, aims to prevent the development of a disease or injury before it occurs by promoting healthy behaviors. Choice C, tertiary prevention, involves managing and improving the quality of life of individuals with established conditions to prevent complications and further deterioration. Choice D, health education, refers to providing information and promoting awareness about health issues to enable individuals to make informed decisions and adopt healthy behaviors.
Question 7 of 9
What title should be given to this role in occupational health? An advanced practice nurse who provides workers with primary care services with an emphasis on the diagnosis and management of common acute illnesses/injuries and stable chronic diseases.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct title for this role is a clinician nurse practitioner as they provide primary care services, including diagnosing and managing illnesses. Choice A, case manager, typically focuses on coordinating care and services for patients. Choice B, nurse consultant, involves providing expert advice and guidance. Choice D, health promotion specialist, concentrates on promoting health and preventing diseases rather than diagnosing and treating illnesses.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is teaching a community group about risks of cardiovascular disease. Several clients ask the nurse to determine their risk. Which client should the nurse identify as having the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A male with a high LDL level (200 mg/dl) has a significant risk for cardiovascular disease. High levels of LDL cholesterol are associated with an increased risk of atherosclerosis and heart disease. Choices A, B, and D have serum cholesterol levels that are slightly elevated but are not as specific or directly linked to cardiovascular risk as high LDL levels. Therefore, the client with the high LDL level is at the greatest risk for cardiovascular disease.
Question 9 of 9
A community health nurse is planning a health promotion campaign. What should be the first step?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct first step in planning a health promotion campaign is to assess the needs of the community. By understanding the community's specific health needs, preferences, and resources, the nurse can tailor the campaign effectively. Developing educational materials (choice A) should come after assessing needs to ensure relevance. Implementing interventions (choice C) and evaluating outcomes (choice D) should also follow the assessment phase to measure the impact of the campaign accurately.