HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client with a diagnosis of hypertension is being assessed. Which symptom would be most concerning?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chest pain in a client with hypertension is the most concerning symptom as it may indicate a myocardial infarction or other serious cardiac event related to hypertension. Immediate intervention is required to address potential life-threatening conditions. Headache, blurred vision, and dizziness are common symptoms associated with hypertension but are not typically indicative of an acute cardiac event requiring urgent attention.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is providing teaching to an older adult client who has constipation. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching is to 'Sit on the toilet 30 minutes after eating a meal.' This advice can help establish a regular bowel routine and improve bowel movement. Option B, 'Increase your fluid intake to help with bowel movements,' while important, is not specific to the time after eating and does not directly address the need for establishing a routine. Option C, 'Exercise regularly to improve bowel function,' is also important but does not address the timing of bowel movements. Option D, 'Consume more high-fiber foods to prevent constipation,' is beneficial for preventing constipation but does not address the timing aspect related to bowel movements.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is planning care for a client who has had a stroke, resulting in aphasia and dysphagia. Which of the following tasks should the nurse assign to an assistive personnel (AP)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should assign the task of assisting the client with a partial bed bath to an assistive personnel (AP). APs are trained to provide basic care tasks like hygiene assistance. Options B, C, and D involve more complex tasks such as measuring BP, using a communication board for speech-impaired clients, and feeding, which require nursing judgment and skills beyond basic care. Therefore, these tasks should be performed by licensed nursing staff who can assess, communicate effectively, and address the specific medical and safety needs of the client.
Question 4 of 9
A client with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing and wheezing. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and wheezing, the priority nursing action is to administer a bronchodilator. This intervention helps relieve bronchospasm and improve the client's breathing. Obtaining a peak flow reading can provide additional information but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Providing supplemental oxygen may be needed but addressing the bronchospasm with a bronchodilator takes precedence. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is important but not as urgent as administering a bronchodilator to address the breathing difficulty.
Question 5 of 9
The patient is immobilized after undergoing hip replacement surgery. Which finding will alert the nurse to monitor for hemorrhage in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, which is low-molecular-weight heparin doses. After hip replacement surgery, patients are at risk of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to immobility. Heparin and low-molecular-weight heparin are commonly used for prophylaxis against DVT. Monitoring for hemorrhage is crucial when administering anticoagulants. Choices A, C, and D are not directly related to monitoring for hemorrhage in this scenario. Thick, tenacious pulmonary secretions (Choice A) may indicate respiratory issues, SCDs (Choice C) help prevent DVT but do not directly relate to hemorrhage monitoring, and elastic stockings (TED hose) (Choice D) are used for DVT prophylaxis but do not alert to hemorrhage.
Question 6 of 9
The healthcare professional caring for a patient who is immobile frequently checks for impaired skin integrity. What is the rationale for this action?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The rationale behind checking for impaired skin integrity in an immobile patient is that pressure reduces circulation to the affected tissue. Prolonged pressure on specific body parts can lead to reduced blood flow to those areas, causing tissue damage and potentially leading to pressure ulcers. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because inadequate blood flow causing decreased tissue ischemia, limited caloric intake leading to thicker skin, and decreased verbalization of skin care needs are not directly related to the rationale for checking for impaired skin integrity in immobile patients.
Question 7 of 9
A nursing assistive personnel (AP) is providing AM care to patients. Which action by the NAP will require the nurse to intervene?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Turning a patient's head with a neck injury to the side when giving oral care can lead to harm or further injury. The neck should be kept in a neutral position to prevent exacerbation of the injury. Choices A, B, and C are not actions that require immediate nurse intervention. Not offering a backrub, not washing a patient's hair, or turning off the television are not critical issues that pose harm to the patient's well-being or safety.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse obtains a prescription for wrist restraints for a client who is trying to pull out his NG Tube. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: When using wrist restraints, it is important to allow room for two fingers to fit between the client's skin and the restraints. This practice ensures proper circulation and comfort for the client while still providing the necessary level of security. Choice A is incorrect because removing restraints every 4 hours may compromise the effectiveness of restraint use. Choice B is incorrect as restraints should not be attached to the side of the bed where they could cause harm or be tampered with by the client. Choice C is incorrect because allowing minimal movement may lead to discomfort and compromise proper circulation.
Question 9 of 9
A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: To administer 200 mg of metoprolol using 100 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet contains 100 mg of metoprolol, so 2 tablets will provide the required 200 mg dose. Choice A is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 100 mg, which is insufficient. Choice C is incorrect as fractions of tablets are usually not used in practice to ensure accurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as it would result in an overdose, providing 400 mg instead of the prescribed 200 mg.