HESI LPN
HESI Maternal Newborn Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client who is receiving prenatal care is at her 24-week appointment. Which of the following laboratory tests should the nurse plan to conduct?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 1-hour glucose tolerance test. At around 24-28 weeks of gestation, a pregnant individual is typically screened for gestational diabetes. The 1-hour glucose tolerance test helps in identifying elevated blood sugar levels during pregnancy. Choice A, Group B strep culture, is not typically performed at the 24-week appointment but later in the third trimester to screen for Group B streptococcus colonization. Choice C, Rubella titer, is usually checked early in pregnancy to determine immunity to rubella. Choice D, Blood type and Rh, is important for determining the client's blood type and Rh status, but it is usually done earlier in pregnancy and not specifically at the 24-week appointment.
Question 2 of 9
A newborn nursery protocol includes a prescription for ophthalmic erythromycin 5% ointment to both eyes upon a newborn's admission. What action should the nurse take to ensure adequate installation of the ointment?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: To ensure adequate installation of the ophthalmic erythromycin 5% ointment in a newborn, the nurse should instill a thin ribbon into each lower conjunctival sac. This method helps to ensure proper distribution and effectiveness of the medication to prevent neonatal conjunctivitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Occluding the inner canthus after retracting the eyelids, mummy wrapping the infant, or stabilizing the instilling hand on the neonate's head are not appropriate actions for ensuring the proper installation of the ointment.
Question 3 of 9
How many chromosomes are typically found in human cells, organized into pairs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Failed to generate a rationale of 500+ characters after 5 retries.
Question 4 of 9
When obtaining a health history from a client, a nurse in a woman's health clinic should identify which of the following findings as increasing the client's risk for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Chlamydia infection is a significant risk factor for developing pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is often caused by untreated sexually transmitted infections (STIs) like Chlamydia and Gonorrhea that ascend from the vagina to the upper reproductive organs. Recurrent cystitis (choice A) is more related to urinary tract infections, frequent alcohol use (choice B) is not directly linked to PID, and the use of oral contraceptives (choice C) does not increase the risk of developing PID.
Question 5 of 9
Preconception counseling is crucial for the safe management of diabetic pregnancies. Which complication is commonly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Preconception counseling is essential as strict metabolic control before conception and in the early weeks of gestation helps reduce the risk of congenital anomalies. Frequent episodes of maternal hypoglycemia usually occur during the first trimester due to hormonal changes, affecting insulin production and use, rather than before conception. Hydramnios is more common in diabetic pregnancies, typically seen in the third trimester, not during early pregnancy. Hyperemesis gravidarum, although it may lead to hypoglycemic events, is related to decreased food intake and glucose transfer to the fetus, exacerbating hypoglycemia rather than being directly associated with poor glycemic control before and during early pregnancy.
Question 6 of 9
A client is 4 hours postpartum and is experiencing hypovolemic shock. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In hypovolemic shock, there is decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Administering oxygen at 4L/min via nasal cannula can help improve oxygenation and support tissue perfusion. Indomethacin (Choice A) is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug and is not indicated in the management of hypovolemic shock. Inserting a second 22-gauge IV catheter (Choice B) may be necessary for fluid resuscitation, but oxygen administration takes precedence. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter (Choice C) may be considered for monitoring urinary output, but it is not the priority action in managing hypovolemic shock.
Question 7 of 9
When does the fetus typically begin to turn and respond to external stimulation during pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The fetus typically begins to respond to external stimulation much later in pregnancy, usually after the first trimester. During the second or third week of pregnancy, the fetus is still in the early stages of development and is not yet capable of turning or responding to external stimuli. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not accurately reflect the timeline of fetal development when it comes to responding to external stimulation.
Question 8 of 9
A primiparous woman presents in labor with the following labs: hemoglobin 10.9 g/dL, hematocrit 29%, hepatitis surface antigen positive, Group B Streptococcus positive, and rubella non-immune. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention in this scenario is to administer ampicillin 2 grams intravenously. This is crucial to prevent Group B Streptococcus infection in the newborn during delivery. Option A, transfusing packed red blood cells, is not indicated based on the hemoglobin and hematocrit levels provided. Option B, giving measles, mumps, rubella vaccine, is not necessary at this time. Option D, injecting hepatitis B immune globulin, is not appropriate for the conditions presented in the question.
Question 9 of 9
What should be the primary focus of nursing care in the transitional phase of labor for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: During the transitional phase of labor, which is the most intense phase, the primary focus of nursing care for a client who anticipates an unmedicated delivery should be assisting her to maintain control. This is essential to help her manage the intense pain and anxiety associated with this phase without the use of medication. Assessing the strength of uterine contractions (Choice A) is important but not the primary focus during the transitional phase. Re-evaluating the need for medication (Choice B) is not applicable as the client anticipates an unmedicated delivery. Reminding her to push 3 times with each contraction (Choice C) is more related to the pushing stage of labor and not the transitional phase.