HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client taking long-term steroids also has ranitidine prescribed. The nurse provides which explanation as to why these drugs are given together?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Ranitidine is prescribed with long-term steroids to reduce the risk of ulcers associated with steroid therapy. Although steroids can increase the risk of ulcers due to their effect on the gastrointestinal system, ranitidine works by reducing stomach acid production, thus helping to prevent ulcer formation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as ranitidine is not given to decrease the risk of infection, reduce blood sugar elevations, or reduce sodium retention associated with steroid usage.
Question 2 of 5
The healthcare provider is assessing the effectiveness of the drug amiodarone. Which client statement best indicates that the drug has been effective?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The effectiveness of amiodarone is best assessed by a reduction in irregular heartbeats, as it is primarily used to treat ventricular dysrhythmias. Angina spells, ankle swelling, and cholesterol levels are not direct indicators of amiodarone's effectiveness.
Question 3 of 5
A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. The nurse should assess the client for which potential side effect?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. Anticholinergic medications like ipratropium can lead to decreased salivary flow, resulting in dry mouth.
Question 4 of 5
What side effect is a male client likely to experience while receiving furosemide 40mg by mouth?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Muscle cramps are a common side effect of furosemide due to its impact on electrolyte levels, especially potassium. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, resulting in muscle cramps as one of the manifestations of electrolyte imbalances.
Question 5 of 5
A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary.
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