HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice Questions
Question 1 of 9
A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, there is excessive urination leading to fluid loss, which can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ketonuria is typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, and elevated blood pressure is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus related to a pituitary gland tumor.
Question 2 of 9
When gathering subjective data from a client, what intervention should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Establishing rapport is the initial step the nurse should take when gathering subjective data from a client. Building trust and a good relationship with the client creates an environment where the client feels comfortable sharing accurate and honest information. Listening attentively is important but should come after rapport is established to enhance active listening. Listing problems and clarifying inferences are actions that occur later in the assessment process, after the nurse has established a good rapport and obtained a comprehensive understanding of the client's perspective. Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
Question 3 of 9
A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus tells the nurse that he is going to join a gym and start working out. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain in this scenario is the presence of calf pain during exercise. Calf pain during exercise could indicate peripheral vascular issues, such as peripheral artery disease, which is crucial to address before starting an exercise program. High cholesterol levels (choice A) may be important but are not as immediately relevant as assessing for peripheral vascular issues. Average weight gain or loss (choice C) may provide some insight into the patient's overall health status but is not as critical as assessing for potential vascular complications. An exercise tolerance test with EKG results (choice D) may be valuable in assessing cardiovascular fitness but is not as crucial as evaluating for peripheral vascular issues given the patient's symptoms.
Question 4 of 9
The public health nurse received funding to initiate a primary prevention program in the community. Which program best fits the nurse's proposal?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vitamin supplements for high-risk pregnant women. This option aligns with primary prevention by preventing deficiencies before they occur, which is a key aspect of primary prevention. Providing vitamin supplements to high-risk pregnant women can help prevent birth defects and complications. Choices A, B, and D do not align with primary prevention strategies. Case management and screening for clients with HIV (Choice A) is more of a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection and management. A regional relocation center for earthquake victims (Choice B) is focused on addressing the aftermath of a disaster rather than preventing it. Lead screening for children in low-income housing (Choice D) is more about early detection and intervention rather than primary prevention.
Question 5 of 9
A male client with diabetes mellitus takes NPH/regular 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of azithromycin an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Azithromycin should ideally be taken on an empty stomach; however, if taken after breakfast, it should not affect its efficacy. Instructing the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating allows for proper absorption without compromising its effectiveness. Providing an antacid with azithromycin is not necessary in this case. Offering a new breakfast tray in an hour or skipping the dose is not the best course of action as it may lead to missed doses and potential effectiveness issues.
Question 6 of 9
A male client with cirrhosis has jaundice and pruritus. He tells the nurse that he has been soaking in hot baths at night with no relief of his discomfort. What action should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Cooler water and oil-based lotion can help relieve pruritus and improve comfort in clients with cirrhosis experiencing jaundice and pruritus. Hot baths can exacerbate itching, so it is important to suggest cooler showers instead. Choice A is incorrect because symptoms like pruritus can be managed. Choice B is not the most appropriate initial intervention for pruritus related to liver disease. Choice C suggests the use of calamine lotion, which may not be as effective as oil-based lotion for relieving pruritus in this case.
Question 7 of 9
During an admission assessment on an HIV positive client diagnosed with Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP), which symptoms should the nurse carefully observe the client for?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Altered mental status and tachypnea. These symptoms are indicative of PCP and severe HIV progression. Weight loss exceeding 10 percent of baseline body weight (choice A) may be seen in HIV/AIDS but is not specific to PCP. Creamy white patches in the oral cavity (choice C) are characteristic of oral thrush, which is more commonly associated with Candida infections in HIV patients. Normal ABGs with wet lung sounds in all lung fields (choice D) would not be expected with PCP, as it typically presents with hypoxemia and diffuse bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging.
Question 8 of 9
When educating a group of school-age children on reducing the risk of Lyme disease, which instruction should the camp nurse include?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction to reduce the risk of Lyme disease is to wear long sleeves and pants. This helps prevent tick bites, which are the primary mode of transmission for Lyme disease. Wearing protective clothing reduces the skin's exposure to ticks, decreasing the chances of getting bitten. Washing hands frequently (Choice A) is important for general hygiene but not specifically for preventing Lyme disease. Avoiding drinking lake water (Choice B) is unrelated to the prevention of Lyme disease. Not sharing personal products (Choice D) is important for preventing the spread of infections but does not directly reduce the risk of Lyme disease.
Question 9 of 9
A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is admitted for antibiotic treatment of a leg ulcer. Which signs and symptoms, indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS), should the nurse report to the healthcare provider? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct signs and symptoms indicative of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic syndrome (HHNS) include increased heart rate, visual disturbances, and decreased mentation. These symptoms are often associated with HHNS due to the high blood glucose levels. Uremic frost, a sign of advanced kidney disease, is not typically associated with HHNS. Therefore, choices B and D are incorrect. However, choice C, 'Presence of uremic frost,' is incorrect as it is not typically associated with HHNS.