HESI LPN
Adult Health 2 Final Exam Questions
Question 1 of 5
A client is admitted to the hospital with second and third degree burns to the face and neck. How should the nurse best position the client to maximize function of the neck and face and prevent contracture?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: After sustaining burns to the face and neck, positioning is crucial to maintain functional posture, reduce pain, and prevent contractures. Placing the neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides is the best option in this scenario. This position helps prevent neck and facial contractures, allowing for optimal function and healing. Choices A, B, and C do not adequately address the specific needs of a client with burns to the face and neck. Choice A could potentially exacerbate neck contractures, Choice B focuses on arm support rather than neck and face positioning, and Choice C does not directly address the needs of the burned face and neck, making them less effective in preventing contractures in these critical areas.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is assessing a client with a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE). Which symptom is most indicative of this condition?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Gradual onset of dyspnea.' While pulmonary embolism can present with various symptoms, the most common include sudden onset of dyspnea, chest pain (often pleuritic in nature), tachypnea, and tachycardia. Bilateral leg swelling is more commonly associated with conditions like deep vein thrombosis, not pulmonary embolism. Decreased breath sounds on auscultation may be seen in conditions like pneumothorax, not typically in pulmonary embolism. Therefore, the gradual onset of dyspnea is the most indicative symptom of pulmonary embolism in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
A client is being treated for dehydration. Which clinical finding would indicate that treatment is effective?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased urine output. When a client is being treated for dehydration, increased urine output is a positive indication that the treatment is effective. This signifies that the body is beginning to rehydrate and eliminate excess fluid. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and hypotension are all associated with dehydration and would not be signs of effective treatment.
Question 4 of 5
A postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Assessing the client's lung sounds is the most appropriate initial action when a postoperative client complains of sudden shortness of breath. This step helps the nurse evaluate the respiratory status and detect abnormalities such as decreased breath sounds or crackles, which could indicate a serious condition like a pulmonary embolism. Administering oxygen (Choice A) may be necessary but should come after assessing the lung sounds to ensure the appropriate intervention. Calling the healthcare provider (Choice B) or preparing for a chest x-ray (Choice C) can be important subsequent actions based on the findings from the lung sound assessment, but they are not the first priority in this situation.
Question 5 of 5
A client is admitted with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which intervention should the nurse implement to promote airway clearance?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Encouraging increased fluid intake is the most appropriate intervention to promote airway clearance in a client with pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps to thin respiratory secretions, making it easier for the client to cough up and clear the airways. Administering bronchodilators (Choice A) may help with bronchospasm but does not directly promote airway clearance. Chest physiotherapy (Choice C) can be beneficial in certain cases but may not be the initial intervention for promoting airway clearance. Providing humidified oxygen (Choice D) can help improve oxygenation but does not specifically target airway clearance in pneumonia.
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