A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

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HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.

Question 2 of 9

The nurse is providing education about the importance of proper foot care to a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus. Which primary goal is the nurse trying to achieve?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Prevention of amputation. Patients with diabetes are at a higher risk of foot complications, such as ulcers, infections, and ultimately, amputations. Proper foot care education aims to prevent these serious complications. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while they are also important aspects of foot care, the primary goal in diabetes management is to prevent severe outcomes like amputation.

Question 3 of 9

A client is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. After the nurse explains the procedure, which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client's statement indicates a misunderstanding about the need to lie still during the bronchoscopy procedure. The client actually needs to remain still for the procedure to ensure its accuracy and safety. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate an understanding of the procedure by acknowledging the local anesthetic for discomfort, the possibility of receiving medicine for relaxation, and the requirement to fast before the procedure, respectively.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is providing care to a 17-year-old client in the post-operative care unit (PACU) after an emergency appendectomy. Which finding is an early indication that the client is experiencing poor oxygenation?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: An increasing pulse rate can be an early sign of poor oxygenation as the body tries to compensate. Abnormal breath sounds (choice A) can indicate respiratory issues, but they may not always be an early sign of poor oxygenation. Cyanosis of the lips (choice B) is a late sign of inadequate oxygenation. A pulse oximeter reading of 92% (choice D) indicates mild hypoxemia but may not be considered an early indication of poor oxygenation.

Question 5 of 9

The caregiver is assessing an 8-month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy. Which statement from the caregiver supports the presence of this problem?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The statement 'When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby' supports the presence of atonic cerebral palsy. In this type of cerebral palsy, the child may have poor muscle tone, making it difficult for them to roll from a back-lying position. This inability to roll indicates a lack of muscle tone, which is a characteristic feature of atonic cerebral palsy. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the muscle tone issues typical of atonic cerebral palsy. Choice A focuses on a lack of grasp response, which may suggest motor issues but not specifically atonic cerebral palsy. Choice B refers to visual tracking, and choice C is about the startle reflex, neither of which are defining characteristics of atonic cerebral palsy.

Question 6 of 9

A client is being taught about the use of an incentive spirometer. Which statement by the client indicates effective teaching?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because using the spirometer every hour while awake is an effective way to prevent respiratory complications. This frequency helps in maintaining lung function and preventing atelectasis. Choice B is incorrect because blowing too hard into the spirometer can lead to hyperventilation and dizziness, making choice C also incorrect. Choice D is wrong as waiting to use the spirometer only when feeling short of breath may not provide optimal lung expansion and can lead to respiratory issues.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin subcutaneously. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Enoxaparin should be administered with the needle at a 90-degree angle to ensure proper subcutaneous delivery. Choice B is correct as it aligns with the recommended angle for subcutaneous injections. Administering enoxaparin at a 45-degree angle (Choice A), 30-degree angle (Choice C), or 15-degree angle (Choice D) would not be appropriate and may lead to improper administration or absorption of the medication.

Question 8 of 9

A nurse is discussing the nursing process with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse should the nurse identify as appropriate for the planning step of the nursing process?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In the nursing process, the planning step involves determining priorities and goals based on the identified problems. Choice A is correct as it reflects the nurse's role in identifying the most important client problems to address, which aligns with the planning phase. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B involves data collection, which is a part of the assessment phase, not planning. Choice C pertains to the implementation of care, which occurs after the planning phase. Choice D involves evaluation of a specific intervention, not planning.

Question 9 of 9

When assisting an 82-year-old client to ambulate, it is important for the LPN/LVN to realize that the center of gravity for an elderly person is in the

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Upper torso.' In elderly individuals, the center of gravity tends to shift upwards towards the upper torso due to various factors such as changes in posture and muscle strength. Understanding this is crucial for safe ambulation as it helps in maintaining balance and stability. Choices A, 'Arms,' C, 'Head,' and D, 'Feet,' are incorrect. The center of gravity is not typically located in the arms, head, or feet. It is higher up in the body, specifically in the upper torso. Knowing the correct location of the center of gravity is essential for assisting elderly clients in ambulation effectively and preventing falls.

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