A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

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HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 9

A client is 48 hours postoperative following a small bowel resection. The client reports gas pains in the periumbilical area. The nurse should plan care based on which of the following factors contributing to this postoperative complication?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Gas pains in the periumbilical area postoperatively are often caused by impaired peristalsis and bowel function. Following abdominal surgery, it is common for peristalsis to be reduced due to surgical manipulation and anesthesia effects. This reduction in peristalsis can lead to the accumulation of gas in the intestines, resulting in gas pains. Infection at the surgical site (Choice B) would present with localized signs of infection such as redness, swelling, warmth, and drainage, rather than diffuse gas pains. Fluid overload (Choice C) would manifest with symptoms such as edema, increased blood pressure, and respiratory distress, not gas pains. Inadequate pain management (Choice D) may lead to increased discomfort, but it is not the primary cause of gas pains in the periumbilical area following a small bowel resection.

Question 2 of 9

A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse how to perform a capillary blood glucose test. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction is to puncture the site after cleansing and before the antiseptic dries. This sequence helps ensure proper blood collection without introducing contaminants. Choice A is incorrect because wearing sterile gloves is not necessary for capillary blood glucose testing. Choice C is incorrect as wiping the puncture site can introduce contaminants and alter the blood sample. Choice D is incorrect as holding the finger below the heart level is not required for a capillary blood glucose test.

Question 3 of 9

When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.

Question 4 of 9

When providing hygiene for an older-adult patient, why does the nurse closely assess the skin?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Less frequent bathing may be required.' In older adults, daily bathing or using hot water and harsh soap can lead to excessively dry skin. Therefore, the nurse closely assesses the skin to determine if less frequent bathing is necessary to prevent skin dryness and maintain skin integrity. Choice A is incorrect because the outer skin layer does not become less resilient with age. Choice C is incorrect as aging skin is actually more prone to bruising due to thinning of the skin. Choice D is incorrect because sweat gland activity generally decreases with age, leading to reduced skin moisture rather than increased activity.

Question 5 of 9

A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client's medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

Question 6 of 9

The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a chest tube. Which observation requires immediate intervention?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Crepitus around the chest tube insertion site may indicate subcutaneous emphysema, which requires immediate attention. The presence of crepitus suggests air leaking into the tissues, which could lead to respiratory compromise. Constant bubbling in the suction control chamber is expected and indicates proper functioning of the chest tube system. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is also normal, showing the system is intact. Drainage of 50 ml per hour is within the expected range for a chest tube.

Question 7 of 9

A client who is postoperative is verbalizing pain as a 2 on a pain scale of 0 to 10. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the preoperative teaching she received about pain management?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because listening to music is an effective nonpharmacological intervention for managing mild pain. Choice A is incorrect as increasing the frequency of pain medication without consulting healthcare providers can lead to adverse effects. Choice B is incorrect as distracting techniques like breathing faster may not address the pain effectively. Choice D is incorrect as avoidance of physical activity due to pain can hinder postoperative recovery.

Question 8 of 9

An occupational health nurse is caring for an employee who was exposed to an unknown dry chemical, resulting in a chemical burn. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for an employee exposed to an unknown dry chemical is to brush off the chemical from the skin and clothing. This helps prevent further skin contact before irrigation can be done. Irrigating the affected area with running water is crucial after brushing off the chemical to minimize the exposure. Washing the affected area with antibacterial soap is not appropriate for chemical burns, as soap can react with certain chemicals and worsen the situation. Leaving the clothing in place until emergency personnel arrive may allow the chemical to continue to harm the skin and should be avoided.

Question 9 of 9

A client in the emergency department is being cared for by a nurse and has abdominal trauma. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as an indication of hypovolemic shock?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Tachycardia is a hallmark sign of hypovolemic shock. When a client experiences significant blood loss, the body compensates by increasing the heart rate to maintain adequate perfusion to vital organs. Elevated blood pressure is not typically seen in hypovolemic shock; instead, hypotension is a more common finding. Warm, dry skin is characteristic of neurogenic shock, not hypovolemic shock. Decreased respiratory rate is not a typical manifestation of hypovolemic shock, as the body usually tries to increase respiratory effort to improve oxygenation in response to hypovolemia.

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